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৪৮তম বিশেষ বিসিএস [স্বাস্থ্য] ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]

পরীক্ষা৪৮তম বিশেষ বিসিএস [স্বাস্থ্য] ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]তারিখতারিখ অনির্ধারিতসময়01 hr 30 mins
মোট প্রশ্ন১০৩
সিলেবাস
পরীক্ষা – ৩২ Full model test – 5
ঘনত্ব
উত্তর
উত্তরিতবর্তমানপুনরায় দেখুনঅসম্পূর্ণ

৪৮তম বিশেষ বিসিএস [স্বাস্থ্য] ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]

৪৮তম বিশেষ বিসিএস [স্বাস্থ্য] ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived] · তারিখ অনির্ধারিত · ১০৩ প্রশ্ন

.
কোনটি বাংলা কৃৎ-প্রত্যয় নয়?
  1. √পড়্‌ + অ = পড়
  2. √কাঁদ্ + অন = কাঁদন
  3. √কৃ + তব্য = কর্তব্য
  4. সবগুলোই
সঠিক উত্তর:
√কৃ + তব্য = কর্তব্য
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
√কৃ + তব্য = কর্তব্য
ব্যাখ্যা
বাংলা কৃৎ প্রত্যয়যোগে শব্দ গঠন:

অ:
- √কাঁদ্ + অ = কাঁদ,
- √ধর্ + অ = ধর,
- √চল্ + অ = চল,
- √পড়্‌ + অ = পড়

অন> ওন:
- √নাচ্ + অন = নাচন,
- √ কাঁদ্ + অন = কাঁদন
 
অন্যদিকে,
সংস্কৃত কৃৎ প্রত্যয়যোগে শব্দ গঠন:

অ(অচ্)
√পট্ + অ = পাঠ,
√জি + অ = জয়,
√কৃ + তব্য = কর্তব্য ইত্যাদি।

উৎস: বাংলা ব্যাকরণ ও নির্মিতি, সপ্তম শ্রেণি এবং বাংলা ভাষার ব্যাকরণ, নবম-দশম শ্রেণি (২০১৯-সংস্করণ)।
.
উপজেলা পরিষদে ভাইস চেয়ারম্যান কতজন?
  1. ২ জন
  2. ৩ জন
  3. ১ জন
  4. ৪ জন
সঠিক উত্তর:
২ জন
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
২ জন
ব্যাখ্যা
• উপজেলা পরিষদ:
- উপজেলা পরিষদ বাংলাদেশের স্থানীয় সরকার ব্যবস্থার একটি গুরুত্বপূর্ণ স্তর।
- স্থানীয় জনগণের অংশগ্রহণ ও স্বায়ত্তশাসনের অধিকার নিশ্চিত করার উদ্দেশ্যে এটি গঠিত হয়।
- বর্তমানে দেশের ৬৪টি জেলায় মোট ৪৯৫টি উপজেলা রয়েছে।

• ইতিহাস ও আইনগত ভিত্তি:
- উপজেলা ব্যবস্থা প্রথম চালু হয়: ১৯৮২ সালে
- স্থায়িত্ব না পাওয়ায় পরবর্তীতে এটি বিলুপ্ত হয়।
- পুনরায় প্রবর্তনের জন্য: উপজেলা পরিষদ (রহিত আইন পুনঃপ্রচলন ও সংশোধন) আইন, ২০০৯ পাশ হয় (তারিখ: ৬ এপ্রিল ২০০৯)

• উপজেলা পরিষদের গঠন:
- আইন অনুযায়ী উপজেলা পরিষদ নিম্নোক্ত সদস্যদের নিয়ে গঠিত হয়:
- চেয়ারম্যান – সরাসরি নির্বাচিত
- ২ জন ভাইস চেয়ারম্যান – একজন পুরুষ ও একজন নারী, সরাসরি নির্বাচিত।
- ইউনিয়ন পরিষদের সকল চেয়ারম্যান
- পৌরসভার মেয়র (যদি উপজেলা এলাকায় পৌরসভা থাকে)
- সংরক্ষিত নারী সদস্যগণ – ইউনিয়ন ও পৌরসভার নারী প্রতিনিধিদের মধ্য থেকে নির্বাচিত

- নারীদের জন্য সংরক্ষিত আসন:
- ইউনিয়ন পরিষদ ও পৌরসভার মোট সদস্য সংখ্যার এক-তৃতীয়াংশ নারীদের জন্য সংরক্ষিত।
- সংশ্লিষ্ট নারী সদস্য বা কাউন্সিলরগণ নিজেদের মধ্য থেকে এসব আসনে নির্বাচন করেন।

উৎস: বাংলাদেশ ও বিশ্বপরিচয়, নবম-দশম শ্রেণি।
.
log6 + log36 + log216 + ………. (প্রথম 20টি পদের সমষ্টি) =?
  1. 95log9
  2. 100log3
  3. 105log4
  4. 210log6
সঠিক উত্তর:
210log6
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
210log6
ব্যাখ্যা
প্রশ্ন: log6 + log36 + log216 + ………. (প্রথম ২০টি পদের সমষ্টি) =?

সমাধান:
দেওয়া আছে,
=  log6 + log36 + log216 + ……….
= log6 + log62 + log63 + ……….
= log6 + 2log6 + 3log6 + ……….
= (1 + 2 + 3 +.....)log6

আমরা জানি,
1 + 2 + 3 +..... ধারাটির n পদের সমষ্টি = n(n + 1)/2
∴ ধারাটির 20 টি পদের সমষ্টি = 20(20 + 1)/2
= 210

সুতরাং প্রদত্ত ধারাটির সমষ্টি = 210log6
.
Acrosome in spermatozoa are produced by-
  1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Centriole
  4. Mitochondria
সঠিক উত্তর:
Golgi apparatus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Golgi apparatus
.
Aggregated polyhedral cells with small amount of ground substance is characteristic of-
  1. Connective tissue
  2. Muscle tissue
  3. Nervous tissue
  4. Epithelial tissue
সঠিক উত্তর:
Epithelial tissue
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Epithelial tissue
.
Which is an example of saddle joint?
  1. Temporomandibular joint
  2. Knee joint
  3. First carpometacarpal joint
  4. Wrist joint
সঠিক উত্তর:
First carpometacarpal joint
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
First carpometacarpal joint
ব্যাখ্যা

.
Sterocilia are present in the lining of-
  1. Seminal vesicle
  2. Trachea
  3. Urethra
  4. Epididymis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Epididymis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Epididymis
.
Reticular fibres are characteristically present in-
  1. Thymus
  2. Bones
  3. Spleen
  4. Tendons
সঠিক উত্তর:
Spleen
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Spleen
.
Which nerve arises from the lateral cord of brachial plexus?
  1. Radial nerve
  2. Musculocutaneous nerve
  3. Axillary nerve
  4. Thoracodorsal nerve
সঠিক উত্তর:
Musculocutaneous nerve
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Musculocutaneous nerve
ব্যাখ্যা

১০.
Fetal part of the placenta develops from-
  1. Chorion frondosum
  2. Decidua basalis
  3. Cytrotrophoblasts
  4. Cotyledons
সঠিক উত্তর:
Chorion frondosum
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Chorion frondosum
১১.
Which cranial nerve has parasympathetic component?
  1. Trochlear
  2. Hypoglossal
  3. Facial
  4. Trigeminal
সঠিক উত্তর:
Facial
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Facial
১২.
The vocal folds are abucted by the action of-
  1. Lateral crcoarytenoid
  2. Posterior cricoarytenoid
  3. Cricothyroid
  4. Transverse arutenoid
সঠিক উত্তর:
Posterior cricoarytenoid
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Posterior cricoarytenoid
১৩.
Which is not a cardinal feature of the large gut?
  1. Sacuulation
  2. Appendices epiploicae
  3. Peyer's patches
  4. Taenia coli
সঠিক উত্তর:
Peyer's patches
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Peyer's patches
ব্যাখ্যা

১৪.
The transpyloric plane crosses all of the following structures except-
  1. Fundus of the gall bladder
  2. Pylorus of the stomach
  3. L1 vertebral body
  4. Tip of 10th costal cartilage
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tip of 10th costal cartilage
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tip of 10th costal cartilage
১৫.
Which is the most common site of an ectopic testis?
  1. High up in the scrotum
  2. Superficial inguinal pouch
  3. Deep inguinal ring
  4. Within inguinal canal
সঠিক উত্তর:
Superficial inguinal pouch
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Superficial inguinal pouch
১৬.
At which site is systolic blood pressure the highest?
  1. Aorta
  2. Pulmonary artery
  3. Right atrium
  4. Renal artery
সঠিক উত্তর:
Renal artery
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Renal artery
ব্যাখ্যা
Pressures on the venous side of the circulation (e.g., central vein, right atrium, renal vein) are lower than pressures on the arterial side. Pressure in the pulmonary artery (and all pressures on the right side of the heart) are much lower than
their counterparts on the left side of the heart. In the systemic circulation, systolic pres sure is actually slightly higher in the downstream arteries (e.g., renal artery) than in the aorta because of the reflection of pressure waves at branch points.
১৭.
Which respiratory center regulates inspiratory volume and respiratory rate?
  1. Dorsal respiratory group
  2. Ventral respiratory group
  3. Apneustic center
  4. Pneumotaxic center
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pneumotaxic center
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pneumotaxic center
ব্যাখ্যা
A. Central control of breathing (brain stem and cerebral cortex)

1. Medullary respiratory center

■ is located in the reticular formation.

a. Dorsal respiratory group
■ is primarily responsible for inspiration and generates the basic rhythm for breathing.
■ Input to the dorsal respiratory group comes from the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves. The vagus nerve relays information from peripheral chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors in the lung. The glossopharyngeal nerve relays information from peripheral chemoreceptors.
■ Output from the dorsal respiratory group travels, via the phrenic nerve, to the diaphragm.

b. Ventral respiratory group
■ is primarily responsible for expiration.
■ is not active during normal, quiet breathing, when expiration is passive.
■ is activated, for example, during exercise, when expiration becomes an active process.

2. Apneustic center
■ is located in the lower pons.
■ stimulates inspiration, producing a deep and prolonged inspiratory gasp (apneusis).

3. Pneumotaxic center
■ is located in the upper pons.
■ inhibits inspiration and, therefore, regulates inspiratory volume and respiratory rate.

4. Cerebral cortex
■ Breathing can be under voluntary control; therefore, a person can voluntarily hyperventilate or hypoventilate.
■ Hypoventilation (breath-holding) is limited by the resulting increase in PCO2 and decrease in PO2. A previous period of hyperventilation extends the period of breath holding.
১৮.
Which of the following causes hyperkalemia?
  1. Exercise
  2. Alkalosis
  3. Decreased serum osmolarity
  4. Treatment with β-agonists
সঠিক উত্তর:
Exercise
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Exercise
ব্যাখ্যা
Exercise causes a shift of K+ from cells into blood. The result is hyperkalemia. Hyposmolarity, insulin, β-agonists, and alkalosis cause a shift of K+ from blood into cells. The result is hypokalemia.


১৯.
Which of the following decreases the conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?
  1. A diet low in Ca2+
  2. Hypocalcemia
  3. Hyperparathyroidism
  4. Chronic renal failure
সঠিক উত্তর:
Chronic renal failure
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Chronic renal failure
ব্যাখ্যা
Ca2+ deficiency (low Ca2+ diet or hypocalcemia) activates 1α-hydroxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypophosphatemia also
stimulate the enzyme. Chronic renal failure is associated with a constellation of bone diseases, including osteomalacia caused by failure of the diseased renal tissue to produce the active form of vitamin D.
২০.
Which of the following is the site of secretion of gastrin?
  1. Gastric antrum
  2. Gastric fundus
  3. Duodenum
  4. Ileum
সঠিক উত্তর:
Gastric antrum
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Gastric antrum
ব্যাখ্যা
Gastrin is secreted by the G cells of the gastric antrum. HCl and intrinsic factor are secreted by the fundus.
২১.
Lesion of which part of basal ganglia causes Parkinson’s disease-
  1. subthalamic nucleus
  2. globus pallidus
  3. striatum
  4. substantia nigra
সঠিক উত্তর:
substantia nigra
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
substantia nigra
ব্যাখ্যা
Lesions of the basal ganglia include:

1. Lesions of the globus pallidus
■ result in inability to maintain postural support.

2. Lesions of the subthalamic nucleus
■ are caused by the release of inhibition on the contralateral side.
■ result in wild, flinging movements (e.g., hemiballismus).

3. Lesions of the striatum
■ are caused by the release of inhibition.
■ result in quick, continuous, and uncontrollable movements.
■ occur in patients with Huntington’s disease.

4. Lesions of the substantia nigra
■ are caused by destruction of dopaminergic neurons.
■ occur in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
■ Since dopamine inhibits the indirect (inhibitory) pathway and excites the direct (excitatory) pathway, destruction of dopaminergic neurons is, overall, inhibitory.
■ Symptoms include lead-pipe rigidity, tremor, and reduced voluntary movement.
২২.
Which is not present in cerebellar lesion?
  1. Drunken gait
  2. Scanning speech
  3. Intention tremor
  4. Paralysis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Paralysis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Paralysis
ব্যাখ্যা
Cerebellar lesion:
No paralysis
No sensory deficit
No abnormalities at rest (except the changes in stretch reflexes)
Ataxia (drunken gait)
Slurred/scanning speech
Dysmetria (past-pointing)
Intention tremor
Rebound phenomenon Adiadokodinesia
Decomposition of movement
২৩.
Which hormone inhibit lipolysis?
  1. Glucagon
  2. Insulin
  3. Thyroid hormone
  4. Cortisol
সঠিক উত্তর:
Insulin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Insulin
২৪.
Regarding respiratory acidosis which is not true?
  1. Caused by Gain of volatile acid
  2. pH is low
  3. Base excess is negative
  4. Asthma is a common cause
সঠিক উত্তর:
Base excess is negative
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Base excess is negative
২৫.
Which is a test for cholestatic function of liver ?
  1. ALP
  2. Serum albumin
  3. Serum bilirubin
  4. Prothrombin time
সঠিক উত্তর:
ALP
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ALP
ব্যাখ্যা

Test for synthetic function :
1. Serum Albumin
2. prothrombin time
3. serum total plasma protein
4. albumin globulin ration 

২৬.
Which of the following hormone act through intracellular receptors?
  1. Growth hormone
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Prolactin
  4. Oxytocin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thyroxine
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thyroxine
২৭.
Which of the following nitrogen base is a purine ?
  1. Uracil
  2. Cytosine
  3. Thymine
  4. Adenine
সঠিক উত্তর:
Adenine
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Adenine
২৮.
Colloid solution is formed by -
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Glucose
  3. Amino acid
  4. Mineral
সঠিক উত্তর:
Bilirubin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Bilirubin
ব্যাখ্যা

..


bilirubin forms colloid solution but hydrophobic 
glycogen , starch forms hydrophilic colloid solutions

২৯.
Enteric coated tablet disintegrates in reaching -
  1. Duodenum
  2. Colon
  3. Caecum
  4. Jejunum
সঠিক উত্তর:
Duodenum
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Duodenum
ব্যাখ্যা
Tripathi 8e, P7

Enteric coated tablet—the tablet is coated with a material that does not dissolve in the acidic medium of the stomach; the tablet disintegrates only on reaching the duodenum.
৩০.
Following is an example of supraadditive drug combination
  1. Insulin + Metformin
  2. Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole
  3. Atenolol + Amlodipine
  4. Salbutamol + Montelulast
সঠিক উত্তর:
Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole
৩১.
Following drugs have a relatively short half life
  1. Diazepam
  2. Penicillin G
  3. Digitoxin
  4. Phenobarbitone
সঠিক উত্তর:
Penicillin G
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Penicillin G
৩২.
Which of the following antihypertensive agent is mostly associated with edema?
  1. Prazosin
  2. Telmisartan
  3. Amlodipine
  4. Bisoprolol
সঠিক উত্তর:
Amlodipine
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Amlodipine
ব্যাখ্যা
Tripathi 8e, P609
Among the drugs, CCB is associated with edema.
Ankle edema that occurs in some patients is due to increased hydrostatic pressure across capillaries of the dependent parts as a result of reflex constriction of post capillary vessels in these vascular beds
৩৩.
All parts of rational prescribing except
  1. Proper diagnosis
  2. Appropriate route
  3. Proper dose and duration
  4. Proper organ specificity
সঠিক উত্তর:
Proper organ specificity
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Proper organ specificity
ব্যাখ্যা
Drug might target one or more specific organ, but it is not essential part of rational prescribing.
৩৪.
A medical officer is called as an expert witness. What is the nature of his opinion?
  1. Hearsay
  2. Personal opinion
  3. Expert evidence
  4. Legal verdict
সঠিক উত্তর:
Expert evidence
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Expert evidence
ব্যাখ্যা
Doctors give expert evidence based on scientific knowledge and observations. They do not give verdicts — that is the court’s role.
৩৫.
In a medico-legal autopsy, blood-stained froth from mouth and nostrils indicates:
  1. Hanging
  2. Drowning
  3. Poisoning
  4. Myocardial infarction
সঠিক উত্তর:
Drowning
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Drowning
ব্যাখ্যা
Fine, white or blood-stained froth at mouth and nostrils is typical of drowning — caused by fluid and surfactant in airways.
৩৬.
The most reliable indicator for determining sex is:
  1. Secondary sexual characteristics
  2. External genitalia
  3. Chromosomal analysis
  4. Breast development
সঠিক উত্তর:
Chromosomal analysis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Chromosomal analysis
ব্যাখ্যা
While external features suggest sex, chromosomal karyotyping (XX/XY) is the most definitive test for sex determination.
৩৭.
For age estimation in a foetus, the best parameter is:
  1. Crown-rump length
  2. Skull diameter
  3. Tooth buds
  4. Limb length
সঠিক উত্তর:
Crown-rump length
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Crown-rump length
ব্যাখ্যা
Crown–rump length is used for foetal age determination, especially during 1st and 2nd trimesters.
৩৮.
Which of the following is inadmissible in court as legal evidence?
  1. Medico-legal certificate
  2. Wound certificate
  3. Oral statement from relative
  4. Postmortem report
সঠিক উত্তর:
Oral statement from relative
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Oral statement from relative
ব্যাখ্যা
Hearsay evidence, such as oral statements from relatives, is not admissible. Legal documents like certificates are valid.
৩৯.
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
  1. Tetanus toxoid
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. Oral polio vaccine
  4. Measles vaccine
সঠিক উত্তর:
Measles vaccine
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Measles vaccine
ব্যাখ্যা
Measles vaccine is live attenuated and contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential fetal harm.
৪০.
Herd immunity is NOT seen in:
  1. Measles
  2. Diphtheria
  3. Tetanus
  4. Polio
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tetanus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tetanus
ব্যাখ্যা
Tetanus is not spread person-to-person, so herd immunity does not apply.
৪১.
Which of the following is not a waterborne disease?
  1. Typhoid
  2. Cholera
  3. Hepatitis A
  4. Dengue
সঠিক উত্তর:
Dengue
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Dengue
ব্যাখ্যা
Dengue is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, not waterborne. The rest are fecal-oral transmitted via contaminated water
৪২.
A test with high sensitivity means:
  1. It detects all true positives
  2. It detects all true negatives
  3. It is highly specific
  4. It is reproducible
সঠিক উত্তর:
It detects all true positives
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
It detects all true positives
ব্যাখ্যা
High sensitivity = few false negatives, so most actual disease cases are picked up by the test.
৪৩.
Which of the following air pollutants causes “classical smog” in urban areas?
  1. Sulphur dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Lead
  4. Particulate matter
সঠিক উত্তর:
Sulphur dioxide
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Sulphur dioxide
ব্যাখ্যা
Sulphur dioxide, in combination with fog and smoke, leads to classical (London-type) smog, particularly in cold climates.
৪৪.
Which type of necrosis often leads to the formation of abscesses?
  1. Coagulative
  2. Casating
  3. Liquifactive
  4. Gangrenous
সঠিক উত্তর:
Liquifactive
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Liquifactive
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Liquefactive necrosis, due to enzymatic digestion, is characteristic of bacterial infections, leading to pus and abscess formation.
৪৫.
Which immune-mediated complication is associated with both skin and throat infections of Streptococcus pyogenes?
  1. Rheumatic heart disease
  2. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
  3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  4. Acute glomerulonephritis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Acute glomerulonephritis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Acute glomerulonephritis
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis can follow both skin and throat infections caused by S. pyogenes.
৪৬.
Which complement component is responsible for forming the membrane attack complex (MAC)?
  1. C3b
  2. C1b
  3. C5b-C9
  4. Factor B
সঠিক উত্তর:
C5b-C9
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
C5b-C9
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
The MAC is formed by C5b through C9, leading to cell lysis by creating pores in the target cell membrane.
৪৭.
Which of the following is a classical symptom of giardiasis?
  1. Steatorrhea
  2. Tenesmus
  3. Bloody diarrhoea
  4. Hematemesis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Steatorrhea
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Steatorrhea
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Giardiasis leads to fat malabsorption, causing greasy, foul-smelling, pale stools (steatorrhea).
৪৮.
Which of the following histological features is more likely in malignant tumors?
  1. Low nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio
  2. Prominent nucleoli
  3. Minimal mitotic figures
  4. Encapsulation
সঠিক উত্তর:
Prominent nucleoli
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Prominent nucleoli
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Malignant cells show enlarged, irregular nuclei with prominent nucleoli due to increased transcriptional activity.
৪৯.
Which is not an effect of endotoxin?
  1. Shock
  2. Hypothermia
  3. Inflammation
  4. Coagulation
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypothermia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypothermia
৫০.
Cause of pneumonia after influenzae virus infection-
  1. Klebsiella
  2. Chlamydia
  3. Staphylococcus
  4. Streptococcus
সঠিক উত্তর:
Staphylococcus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Staphylococcus
৫১.
Disease caused by T cell abnormality-
  1. Di George syndrome
  2. X linked agammaglobulinemia
  3. Severe combined immunodeficiency
  4. Selective IgA deficiency
সঠিক উত্তর:
Di George syndrome
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Di George syndrome
৫২.
Fungal cause of meningitis-
  1. Cryptococcus
  2. Candida
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Mucor
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cryptococcus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cryptococcus
৫৩.
Lyme disease is caused by-
  1. Borrelia burgdorferi
  2. Treponema pallidum
  3. Borrelia recurrentis
  4. Leptospirosis interrogans
সঠিক উত্তর:
Borrelia burgdorferi
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Borrelia burgdorferi
৫৪.
A peripheral smear in iron deficiency anaemia shows:
  1. Macrocytosis and hypersegmented neutrophils
  2. Microcytic hypochromic RBCs
  3. Spherocytes
  4. Schistocytes
সঠিক উত্তর:
Microcytic hypochromic RBCs
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Microcytic hypochromic RBCs
ব্যাখ্যা
Iron deficiency leads to microcytic, hypochromic red cells due to impaired hemoglobin synthesis.
৫৫.
The most specific diagnostic test for confirming COVID-19 infection is:
  1. Chest X-ray
  2. Rapid antigen test
  3. RT-PCR from nasopharyngeal swab
  4. Serology for IgG
সঠিক উত্তর:
RT-PCR from nasopharyngeal swab
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
RT-PCR from nasopharyngeal swab
ব্যাখ্যা
RT-PCR detects viral RNA and is considered the gold standard for COVID-19 diagnosis. Antigen tests are less sensitive.
৫৬.
The most common form of extrapulmonary TB is:
  1. CNS TB
  2. Miliary TB
  3. Lymph node TB
  4. Renal TB
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lymph node TB
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lymph node TB
ব্যাখ্যা
Lymph node tuberculosis, especially cervical, is the most common extrapulmonary manifestation, especially in young and HIV+ patients.
৫৭.
First-line drug for hypertension in a diabetic patient is:
  1. Beta-blocker
  2. Calcium channel blocker
  3. ACE inhibitor
  4. Thiazide
সঠিক উত্তর:
ACE inhibitor
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ACE inhibitor
ব্যাখ্যা
ACE inhibitors are preferred in diabetics due to their renal protective effects and ability to reduce proteinuria.
৫৮.
A classical sign of left-sided heart failure is:
  1. Pedal edema
  2. Orthopnea
  3. Ascites
  4. Raised JVP
সঠিক উত্তর:
Orthopnea
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Orthopnea
ব্যাখ্যা
Orthopnea is caused by pulmonary congestion due to left ventricular dysfunction. Pedal edema and JVP are more right-sided features.
৫৯.
Cardiac enzyme that rises earliest after MI is:
  1. CK-MB
  2. Troponin I
  3. Myoglobin
  4. LDH
সঠিক উত্তর:
Myoglobin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Myoglobin
ব্যাখ্যা
Myoglobin rises within 1–2 hours, but it lacks specificity. Troponins rise by 3–6 hours and are more specific for MI.
৬০.
A patient has sudden-onset left-sided hemiplegia and facial droop. Most likely diagnosis is:
  1. Parkinson’s disease
  2. Stroke
  3. Guillain–Barré syndrome
  4. Epilepsy
সঠিক উত্তর:
Stroke
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Stroke
ব্যাখ্যা
Sudden focal neurological deficit suggests stroke—either ischemic or hemorrhagic.
৬১.
A patient with weight loss, anxiety, heat intolerance, and exophthalmos likely has:
  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Thyrotoxicosis
  3. Addison’s disease
  4. Cushing’s syndrome
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thyrotoxicosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thyrotoxicosis
ব্যাখ্যা
Classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include weight loss, tremor, palpitations, and heat intolerance. Exophthalmos suggests Graves’ disease.
৬২.
A 35-year-old woman presents with symmetrical joint pain and morning stiffness lasting >1 hour. What is the most specific marker for RA?
  1. CRP
  2. Rheumatoid Factor
  3. Anti-CCP antibody
  4. ESR
সঠিক উত্তর:
Anti-CCP antibody
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Anti-CCP antibody
ব্যাখ্যা
Anti-CCP antibody is more specific for RA than RF and can help in early diagnosis.
৬৩.
A 5-year-old child with nephrotic syndrome shows dramatic response to corticosteroids. Most likely diagnosis?
  1. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  2. Minimal change disease
  3. Membranous nephropathy
  4. Post-infectious GN
সঠিক উত্তর:
Minimal change disease
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Minimal change disease
ব্যাখ্যা
Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of NS in children and responds well to steroids.
৬৪.
A distinguishing feature of encephalitis compared to meningitis is:
  1. Neck stiffness
  2. Rapid progression of symptoms
  3. Focal neurological signs and seizures
  4. Absence of fever
সঠিক উত্তর:
Focal neurological signs and seizures
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Focal neurological signs and seizures
ব্যাখ্যা
Focal neurological deficits and seizures are more suggestive of encephalitis due to brain parenchymal involvement, unlike meningitis.
৬৫.
The most commonly affected joint in primary osteoarthritis is:
  1. Shoulder
  2. Elbow
  3. Knee
  4. Ankle
সঠিক উত্তর:
Knee
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Knee
ব্যাখ্যা
The knee joint is the most commonly affected in primary OA, followed by hips and small hand joints.
৬৬.
Schilling test is used to detect:
  1. Iron deficiency
  2. Folate deficiency
  3. Vitamin B12 malabsorption
  4. Vitamin D deficiency
সঠিক উত্তর:
Vitamin B12 malabsorption
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Vitamin B12 malabsorption
ব্যাখ্যা
Schilling test measures vitamin B12 absorption, especially useful in identifying pernicious anemia.
৬৭.
Rome IV criteria are used to diagnose:
  1. Crohn’s disease
  2. Ulcerative colitis
  3. IBS
  4. Coeliac disease
সঠিক উত্তর:
IBS
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
IBS
ব্যাখ্যা
Rome IV criteria are the diagnostic standard for Irritable Bowel Syndrome, based on recurrent abdominal pain and bowel habit changes.
৬৮.
The most likely viral cause of acute self-limiting hepatitis in young adults is:
  1. Hepatitis A
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. Hepatitis C
  4. Hepatitis D
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hepatitis A
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hepatitis A
ব্যাখ্যা
Hepatitis A is transmitted via fecal–oral route, causes acute, self-limiting hepatitis, especially in children and young adults.
৬৯.
Most common cause of peptic ulcer disease is:
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Helicobacter pylori
  3. Alcohol
  4. Stress
সঠিক উত্তর:
Helicobacter pylori
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Helicobacter pylori
ব্যাখ্যা
H. pylori infection is the leading cause of both duodenal and gastric ulcers, followed by NSAID use.
৭০.
Bence Jones proteins in urine are composed of:
  1. Kappa and lambda light chains
  2. Albumin fragments
  3. Immunoglobulin M
  4. Complement C3
সঠিক উত্তর:
Kappa and lambda light chains
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Kappa and lambda light chains
ব্যাখ্যা
Bence Jones proteins are free light chains (kappa or lambda) excreted in urine, frequently found in multiple myeloma and light-chain disease.
৭১.
Which is an example of minimal access surgery?
  1. Circumcision
  2. Arthroscopy
  3. Craniectomy
  4. Enucleation of lipoma
সঠিক উত্তর:
Arthroscopy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Arthroscopy
৭২.
Which is the ideal replacement fluid in a polytrauma patient?
  1. Hartmann's solution
  2. Normal saline
  3. Blood
  4. Hemaccel
সঠিক উত্তর:
Blood
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Blood
৭৩.
Greenish discharge in coming from the wound of a patient with second degree burn. Which is the most likely pathogen?
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Streptococcus pyogenes
  3. Proteus mirabilis
  4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ব্যাখ্যা
Burn wounds are most commonly invaded by Pseudomonas

Infection with pseudomonas causes greenish tinge in the wound. 
৭৪.
Which is not consistent with acute compartment syndrome?
  1. Poikilothermia
  2. Paraesthesia
  3. Claudication pain
  4. Pulselessness
সঠিক উত্তর:
Claudication pain
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Claudication pain
ব্যাখ্যা

৭৫.
Which is not true regarding keloid?
  1. Has genetic predisposition
  2. Grows beyond original wound
  3. Common in females
  4. Should be excised early
সঠিক উত্তর:
Should be excised early
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Should be excised early
৭৬.
Which exotoxin is responsible for the pathognomonic features of tetanus?
  1. Tetanospasmin
  2. Tetanolysin
  3. Lecithinase
  4. Kappa toxin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tetanospasmin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tetanospasmin
ব্যাখ্যা

৭৭.
Which is an early complication of hernioplasty?
  1. Urinary retention
  2. Testicular atrophy
  3. Chronic pain
  4. Recurrent hernia
সঠিক উত্তর:
Urinary retention
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Urinary retention
৭৮.
Which is not true regarding marjolin's ulcer?
  1. Painless
  2. Lymphatic spread is common
  3. Well differentiated SCC
  4. Occurs in chronic scar
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lymphatic spread is common
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lymphatic spread is common
ব্যাখ্যা

৭৯.
Fresh per-rectal bleeding with tenesmus and early morning diarrhoea in a 60-year-old male is highly suggestive of-
  1. Hemorrhoids
  2. Anal fissure
  3. Rectal cancer
  4. Diverticulosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Rectal cancer
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Rectal cancer
৮০.
Which finding is not common in gastric outlet obstruction due to pyloric stenosis?
  1. Metabolic alkalosis
  2. Production of acidic urine
  3. Hyperkalaemia
  4. Dehydration
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hyperkalaemia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hyperkalaemia
৮১.
Which is the most common cause of acute appendicitis?
  1. Enterobius vermicularis
  2. Viral infection
  3. Malignant stricture
  4. Obstruction by faecolith
সঠিক উত্তর:
Obstruction by faecolith
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Obstruction by faecolith
৮২.
Which is a medical indication of circumcision in adults?
  1. Hypospadias
  2. Chordee
  3. Phimosis
  4. Urethral stricture
সঠিক উত্তর:
Phimosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Phimosis
ব্যাখ্যা

৮৩.
Which is not routinely used for prevention of DVT in surgical patients?
  1. Pneumatic compression stockings
  2. Elastic compression stockings
  3. Low molecular weight heparin
  4. Warfarin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Warfarin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Warfarin
ব্যাখ্যা
Warfarin is not routinely used for prophylaxis of DVT.

It is used in the treatment of establushed DVT after initial anticoagulation with UF or LMWH. 
৮৪.
Which vessel is most commonly ruptured in extradural hematoma?
  1. Superficial temporal artery
  2. Middle cerebral artery
  3. Middle meningeal artery
  4. Accessory meningeal artery
সঠিক উত্তর:
Middle meningeal artery
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Middle meningeal artery
৮৫.
Which thyroid neoplasm has the worst prognosis?
  1. Anaplastic carcinoma
  2. Follicular carcinoma
  3. Medullary carcinoma
  4. Papillary carcinoma
সঠিক উত্তর:
Anaplastic carcinoma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Anaplastic carcinoma
৮৬.
Which is the investigation of choice for acute osteomyelitis?
  1. CT scan
  2. MRI
  3. Plain radiograph
  4. Ultrasonography
সঠিক উত্তর:
MRI
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
MRI
৮৭.
Which is not associated with obstructive jaundice?
  1. Ascaris lumbricoides
  2. Leptospirosis
  3. Periampullary carcinoma
  4. Cholangiocarcinoma
সঠিক উত্তর:
Leptospirosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Leptospirosis
ব্যাখ্যা
Leptospirosis is associated with hepatocellular jaundice. 

৮৮.
Which component is most appropriate to correct coagulopathy in postpartum hemorrhage?
  1. Packed red cell
  2. Fresh frozen plasma
  3. Platelet
  4. Whole blood
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fresh frozen plasma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fresh frozen plasma
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
FFP contains clotting factors, making it essential in correcting coagulopathy or DIC, commonly seen in massive obstetric hemorrhage.
It is given based on clotting profile (e.g., prolonged PT/aPTT). Cryoprecipitate is for fibrinogen replacement specifically.
৮৯.
Which arterial supply forms an anastomosis around the uterus?
  1. Abdominal aorta and femoral arteries
  2. External iliac and femoral arteries
  3. Femoral and iliac arteries
  4. Ovarian and uterine arteries
সঠিক উত্তর:
Ovarian and uterine arteries
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Ovarian and uterine arteries
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
The ovarian and uterine arteries anastomose to supply blood to the uterus and ovaries.
৯০.
What is the significance of nuchal translucency measurement in the first trimester?
  1. Detecting neural tube defects
  2. Confirming fetal viability
  3. Dating the pregnancy
  4. Screening for chromosomal anomalies
সঠিক উত্তর:
Screening for chromosomal anomalies
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Screening for chromosomal anomalies
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Nuchal translucency (NT) is measured between 11–13+6 weeks. Increased NT (>3 mm) is associated with Down syndrome, Turner syndrome, and other aneuploidies.
It’s part of first-trimester screening.
৯১.
What hormone primarily triggers the onset of menstruation?
  1. Estrogen
  2. Progesterone
  3. Progesterone withdrawal
  4. FSH rise
সঠিক উত্তর:
Progesterone withdrawal
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Progesterone withdrawal
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Menstruation begins due to the drop in progesterone levels leading to shedding of the endometrial lining.
৯২.
What is the definition of neonatal mortality?
  1. Deaths within the first 28 days of life in per lakh live birth
  2. Deaths within the first 28 days of life in per thousands live birth
  3. Deaths in the first 7 days only in per lakh live birth
  4. Deaths in the first 7 days only in per thousands live birth
সঠিক উত্তর:
Deaths within the first 28 days of life in per thousands live birth
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Deaths within the first 28 days of life in per thousands live birth
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Neonatal mortality refers to the death of a newborn within 28 days of birth in per thousands live birth.
It is divided into early neonatal mortality (0–7 days) and late neonatal mortality (8–28 days).
৯৩.
Which benign ovarian tumor is associated with ascites and pleural effusion (Meigs syndrome)?
  1. Fibroma
  2. Serous cystadenoma
  3. Dermoid cyst
  4. Mucinous cystadenoma
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fibroma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fibroma
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Fibromas can cause Meigs syndrome, a triad of ovarian fibroma, ascites, and pleural effusion.
৯৪.
Why is chloramphenicol contraindicated during breastfeeding?
  1. Causes drowsiness in baby
  2. Leads to tooth discoloration
  3. Risk of aplastic anemia
  4. Causes grey baby syndrome
সঠিক উত্তর:
Causes grey baby syndrome
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Causes grey baby syndrome
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Chloramphenicol can accumulate in neonates due to immature liver metabolism and cause grey baby syndrome, which includes vomiting, cyanosis, hypotension, and death.
৯৫.
What is the initial test to perform in a woman of reproductive age presenting with amenorrhea?
  1. Pelvic ultrasound
  2. Pregnancy test
  3. Endometrial biopsy
  4. FSH/LH ratio
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pregnancy test
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pregnancy test
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Always rule out pregnancy first in amenorrhea evaluation.
Pregnancy is the commonest cause of secondary amenorrhoea uless proved otherwise.
৯৬.
Which structure supports the breast and maintains its shape?
  1. Cooper’s ligaments
  2. Fascia of pectoralis major
  3. Glandular tissue
  4. Lactiferous ducts
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cooper’s ligaments
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cooper’s ligaments
ব্যাখ্যা
 

Explanation:
Cooper’s (suspensory) ligaments are fibrous bands that connect the skin to the deep fascia, helping to support the breast.
Weakening leads to sagging.
৯৭.
How do progestin-only pills prevent pregnancy?
  1. Inhibit ovulation in all cycles
  2. Thicken cervical mucus and alter endometrium
  3. Toxic effect to sperm
  4. Inflammatory reaction
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thicken cervical mucus and alter endometrium
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thicken cervical mucus and alter endometrium
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Progestin-only pills primarily prevent sperm penetration and implantation; ovulation may not always be suppressed.
৯৮.
Which hormone is most useful in the diagnosis and monitoring of ectopic pregnancy?
  1. Progesterone
  2. β-hCG
  3. LH
  4. Estrogen
সঠিক উত্তর:
β-hCG
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
β-hCG
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Serial β-hCG levels help in diagnosing ectopic pregnancy and monitoring response to treatment.
Doubling time of this hormone increased.
Level become decreased according to pregnancy
৯৯.
Which organism is a common cause of post-abortal or post-partum pelvic infection?
  1. Group B Streptococcus
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  4. Chlamydia trachomatis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Escherichia coli
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Escherichia coli
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
E. coli, a facultative anaerobe, frequently causes postpartum and post-abortal infections.
১০০.
What is the typical time of onset for hyperemesis gravidarum symptoms?
  1. After 20 weeks
  2. Before 6 weeks
  3. 6-12 weeks
  4. 12-18 weeks
সঠিক উত্তর:
6-12 weeks
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
6-12 weeks
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
HCG usually begins in the first trimester, between 6 and 12 weeks of gestation, coinciding with peak levels of hCG hormone.
১০১.
What type of urinary incontinence is characterized by involuntary leakage associated with a strong, sudden urge to urinate?
  1. Urge incontinece
  2. Stress incontinence
  3. Overflow incontinence
  4. Functional incontinence
সঠিক উত্তর:
Urge incontinece
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Urge incontinece
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Urge incontinence results from detrusor overactivity causing sudden urges.
Urge incontinence is a type of urinary incontinence characterized by a sudden, intense urge to urinate followed by an involuntary loss of urine. It happens because the bladder muscles (detrusor muscles) contract uncontrollably.
১০২.
Which clinical sign indicates placental separation?
  1. Sudden gush of blood from the vagina
  2. Increased fetal heart rate
  3. Cessation of contractions
  4. Decrease in maternal blood pressure
সঠিক উত্তর:
Sudden gush of blood from the vagina
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Sudden gush of blood from the vagina
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Placental separation is often indicated by a sudden gush of blood, lengthening of the umbilical cord, and a rise of the uterus in the abdomen.
১০৩.
How does pregnancy affect renal function?
  1. Decreased renal blood flow
  2. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
  3. Decreased renal size
  4. Decreased urinary frequency
সঠিক উত্তর:
Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
GFR increases by about 50%, causing lower serum creatinine and urea levels during pregnancy.