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Medicine

মোট প্রশ্ন১,৮২২এই পাতা১০০প্রতি পাতা১০০
ঘনত্ব
উত্তর
উত্তরিতবর্তমানপুনরায় দেখুনঅসম্পূর্ণ

Medicine

PrepBank · পাতা ১৭ / ১৯ · ১,৬০১১,৭০০ / ১,৮২২

১,৬০১.
Among Asians, BMI > 25.5 indicates...
  1. ক) Reference range
  2. খ) Overweight
  3. গ) Obese
  4. ঘ) Under weight
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Obese
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Obese
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: among Asians, BMI > 23.0 is overweight and > 25.0 is obese.
১,৬০২.
Initial test for Haemochromatosis?
  1. Liver biopsy
  2. Transferrin Saturation
  3. HFE gene test
  4. Liver function tests
সঠিক উত্তর:
Transferrin Saturation
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Transferrin Saturation
১,৬০৩.
Drugs causing weight gain excludes
  1. ক) Olanzepine
  2. খ) Pizotifen
  3. গ) Steroids
  4. ঘ) NSAIDs
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) NSAIDs
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) NSAIDs
১,৬০৪.
Hidebound chest is found in
  1. SS
  2. SLE
  3. RA
  4. DM
সঠিক উত্তর:
SS
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
SS
১,৬০৫.
Which of the following is intermediate acting insulin?
  1. Asparte
  2. Lispro
  3. Isophane
  4. Detemir
সঠিক উত্তর:
Isophane
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Isophane
১,৬০৬.
Antidote used in ethylene glycol poisoning
  1. ক) Methionine
  2. খ) Fomepizole
  3. গ) Ethanol
  4. ঘ) DMSA
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Fomepizole
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Fomepizole
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-137
১,৬০৭.
First-line treatment for focal onset seizure?
  1. ক) Lamotrigine
  2. খ) Carbamazepine
  3. গ) Levetiracetam
  4. ঘ) Sodium valproate
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Lamotrigine
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Lamotrigine
১,৬০৮.
A generic virus life cycle consists of----------stages
  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8
সঠিক উত্তর:
6
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
6
১,৬০৯.
In stage II COPD, predicted FEV1% is
  1. ক) ≥ 80%
  2. খ) 50 - 79%
  3. গ) 30 - 49%
  4. ঘ) < 30%
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) 50 - 79%
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) 50 - 79%
১,৬১০.
Which of the following is an example of lysosomal storage disease?
  1. Von Gierke disease
  2. McArdle disease
  3. Gaucher disease
  4. Forbes disease
সঠিক উত্তর:
Gaucher disease
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Gaucher disease
১,৬১১.
Anti-arrhythmic acting on SA node excludes
  1. ক) Atropine
  2. খ) Verapamil
  3. গ) Lidocaine
  4. ঘ) Diltiazem
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Lidocaine
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Lidocaine
১,৬১২.
Histiocytic disorders is
  1. Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH
  2. Cutaneous and mucocutaneous histiocytosis
  3. Malignant histiocytosis (M)
  4. All
সঠিক উত্তর:
All
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
All
১,৬১৩.
Which finding is pathognomonic for typhoid fever?
  1. Koplik’s spots
  2. Rose spots
  3. Osler’s nodes
  4. Janeway lesions
সঠিক উত্তর:
Rose spots
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Rose spots
ব্যাখ্যা

Rose spots (blanching pink macules on the trunk) are classic but rare.

Koplik’s spots - Measles

Osler’s nodes & Janeway lesions - Infective endocarditis

১,৬১৪.
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for mucosal defence?
  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgE
সঠিক উত্তর:
IgA
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
IgA
১,৬১৫.
Most common cause of iron deficiency in old age is-
  1. Pernicious anaemia
  2. Anaemia of chronic disease
  3. Gastrointestinal blood loss
  4. Malignancy
সঠিক উত্তর:
Gastrointestinal blood loss
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Gastrointestinal blood loss
১,৬১৬.
A diurnal variation in PEF of more than 20% is considered diagnostic of which of the following condition?
  1. ক) Br. Asthma
  2. খ) COPD
  3. গ) Lung fibrosis
  4. ঘ) Empyema
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Br. Asthma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Br. Asthma
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: A diurnal variation in PEF of more than 20% is considered diagnostic for Bronchial asthma
১,৬১৭.
Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy-related hypertension?
  1. Methyldopa
  2. Labetalol
  3. ACE inhibitors
  4. Nifedipine
সঠিক উত্তর:
ACE inhibitors
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ACE inhibitors
ব্যাখ্যা
ACEi/ARB are teratogenic and avoided in pregnancy
১,৬১৮.
A 60 year old female is admitted to hospital with a severe pneumonia. Patient have no clinical evidence of thyroid disease. Thyroid function tests are most likely to show
  1. ক) Raised T4 , Raised T3 , low serum TSH
  2. খ) Low T4, low T3 , raised serum TSH
  3. গ) Raised T4 , raised T3 , raised serum TSH
  4. ঘ) Raised T4 , Normal / low T3 , low serum TSH
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Raised T4 , Normal / low T3 , low serum TSH
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Raised T4 , Normal / low T3 , low serum TSH
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-642
১,৬১৯.
ST elevation with upward concavity & PR interval depression in ECG suggests
  1. ক) Cardiac tamponade
  2. খ) Acute pericarditis
  3. গ) Acute myocarditis
  4. ঘ) Infective endocarditis
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Acute pericarditis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Acute pericarditis
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-542
১,৬২০.
Most common type of hodgkin lymphoma is?
  1. ক) Nodular sclerosing
  2. খ) Mixed cellularity
  3. গ) Lymphocyte-rich
  4. ঘ) Lymphocyte-depleted
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Nodular sclerosing
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Nodular sclerosing
১,৬২১.
Hepatitis B virus mainly transmits through which of the following routes?
  1. ক) Injection drug use
  2. খ) Sexual transmission
  3. গ) Vertical transmission
  4. ঘ) Infected unscreened blood products
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Vertical transmission
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Vertical transmission
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Vertical transmission (90%)
১,৬২২.
Dengue has------------ no serotype
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6
সঠিক উত্তর:
4
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
4
ব্যাখ্যা
Dengue virus, which has 4 distinct  serotypes, i.e. DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3,  DENV-4 is transmitted by Aedes aegypti  and Aedes albopictus to human
১,৬২৩.
Cause of euvolemic hypernatremia
  1. ক) Diuretic therapy
  2. খ) Colonic diarrhoea
  3. গ) Diabetes insipidus
  4. ঘ) CKD
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Diabetes insipidus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Diabetes insipidus
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-359
১,৬২৪.
Confirmatory investigation of HCC
  1. ক) CT
  2. খ) MRI
  3. গ) Alpha fetoprotein
  4. ঘ) Liver biopsy under USG control
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Liver biopsy under USG control
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Liver biopsy under USG control
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Practical Manual in Clinical Medicine by Professor ABM Abdullah; P-339
১,৬২৫.
Which cell converts T4 to T3
  1. Keratinocyte
  2. Melanocyte
  3. DDC
  4. Lymphocyte
সঠিক উত্তর:
Keratinocyte
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Keratinocyte
১,৬২৬.
Which is not a sign of Enteric Fever?
  1. Coated tongue
  2. Relative tachycardia
  3. Splenomegaly
  4. Caecal gurgling
সঠিক উত্তর:
Relative tachycardia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Relative tachycardia
ব্যাখ্যা
  Signs
ØCoated tongue
ØRelative bradycardia
ØSplenomegaly ( Just Palpable)
ØCaecal gurgling
১,৬২৭.
Most common cause of pericardial effusion
  1. ক) Staphylococcus
  2. খ) Streptococcus
  3. গ) Viral
  4. ঘ) TB
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) TB
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) TB
১,৬২৮.
Angiotensin II doesn’t work by
  1. By Decreasing The Sensitivity Of The Baroreflex
  2. By Decreasing The Secretion Of Vasopressin (ADH) And ACTH
  3. Rise In Systolic And Diastolic Blood Pressure.
  4. Constriction Of Efferent Arteriole
সঠিক উত্তর:
By Decreasing The Secretion Of Vasopressin (ADH) And ACTH
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
By Decreasing The Secretion Of Vasopressin (ADH) And ACTH
১,৬২৯.
Choice of investigation in stroke if presented after 7 days
  1. ক) CT
  2. খ) MRI
  3. গ) CTPA
  4. ঘ) MRA
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) MRI
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) MRI
১,৬৩০.
Dirty neck is associated with
  1. Psoriasis
  2. Scabies
  3. LP
  4. Atopic Eczema
সঠিক উত্তর:
Atopic Eczema
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Atopic Eczema
১,৬৩১.
Which of the following is a feature of Behçet’s syndrome?
  1. ক) Aphthous oral lesions
  2. খ) Genital ulcers
  3. গ) Hypopyon
  4. ঘ) All of the above
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) All of the above
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) All of the above
ব্যাখ্যা
Aphthous oral lesions, genital ulcers and hypopyon suggest Behçet’s syndrome.
১,৬৩২.
Cholecystokinin is secreted from-
  1. D cells
  2. I cells
  3. K cells
  4. L cells
সঠিক উত্তর:
I cells
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
I cells
১,৬৩৩.
Perforation in peptic ulcer is common in
  1. ক) Lesser curvature of stomach
  2. খ) Greater curvature of stomach
  3. গ) Anterior wall of duodenum
  4. ঘ) Posterior wall of duodenum
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Anterior wall of duodenum
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Anterior wall of duodenum
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-801
১,৬৩৪.
Find the odd out?
  1. Diffuse soft goitre with bruit -Graves’ disease
  2. Diffuse firm goitre-Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  3. Diffuse tender goitre- Subacute thyroiditis
  4. Diplopia on medial gaze- GGraves’ disease rave
সঠিক উত্তর:
Diplopia on medial gaze- GGraves’ disease rave
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Diplopia on medial gaze- GGraves’ disease rave
১,৬৩৫.
Not a feature of LMNL
  1. ক) Wasting
  2. খ) Extensor planter response
  3. গ) Fasciculation
  4. ঘ) Typically focal
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Extensor planter response
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Extensor planter response
১,৬৩৬.
Disease with thyroid hormone deficiency
  1. ক) Graves’ disease
  2. খ) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  3. গ) Multinodular goiter
  4. ঘ) Subacute thyroiditis
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-634
১,৬৩৭.
Acute coronary syndrome includes all of the following, except...
  1. ক) Unstable angina
  2. খ) Stable angina
  3. গ) ST elevated MI
  4. ঘ) Non ST elevated MI
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Stable angina
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Stable angina
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Acute coronary syndrome is a term that encompasses both unstable angina and myocardial infarction
১,৬৩৮.
Abnormal ribosomal RNA that appear as blue dots are found in-
  1. Sickle cell disease
  2. Post splenectomy
  3. Lead poisoning
  4. Haemoglobin C disease
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lead poisoning
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lead poisoning
১,৬৩৯.
A child presents with hemarthrosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Platelet deficiency
  2. von Willebrand disease
  3. Haemophilia A
  4. Scurvy
সঠিক উত্তর:
Haemophilia A
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Haemophilia A
ব্যাখ্যা
Haemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency) typically causes deep bleeds into joints and muscles.
১,৬৪০.
What is the most likely cause of a pansystolic murmur heard at the apex in a young adult?
  1. Mitral regurgitation
  2. Aortic stenosis
  3. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  4. Pulmonary stenosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Mitral regurgitation
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Mitral regurgitation
ব্যাখ্যা
A pansystolic murmur at the apex, radiating to the axilla, is characteristic of mitral regurgitation. This occurs due to retrograde flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole.
১,৬৪১.
Glasgow criteria for prognosis of acute pancreatitis include-
  1. Age <55 yeras
  2. Serum calcium >2 mmol/L
  3. Glucose > 10 mmol/L
  4. Albumin <3.2 g/L
সঠিক উত্তর:
Glucose > 10 mmol/L
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Glucose > 10 mmol/L
১,৬৪২.
Which types of thyroid cancer is associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis ?
  1. ক) Follicular
  2. খ) Lymphoma
  3. গ) Medullary
  4. ঘ) Papillary
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Lymphoma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Lymphoma
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-646
১,৬৪৩.
Thyroid tumor arising from parafollicular C cell
  1. ক) Papillary carcinoma
  2. খ) Follicular carcinoma
  3. গ) Medullary carcinoma
  4. ঘ) Anaplastic tumor
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Medullary carcinoma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Medullary carcinoma
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-649
১,৬৪৪.
A 65-year-old smoker presents with fever, cold sore, rusty sputum and lobar consolidation on CXR. The most likely causative organism is:
  1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
সঠিক উত্তর:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
ব্যাখ্যা
Rusty sputum, herpes labialis and lobar consolidation are classic for pneumococcal pneumonia, the most common community-acquired pneumonia.
১,৬৪৫.
Most common cause of acute liver failure is?
  1. Paracetamol toxicity
  2. Anti tuberculous drugs
  3. Acute viral hepatitis
  4. Cryptogenic acute liver failure
সঠিক উত্তর:
Acute viral hepatitis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Acute viral hepatitis
ব্যাখ্যা
Davidson 24th Ed. Page 873.
১,৬৪৬.
Muscle function and global nutritional status is measured by
  1. ক) Waist : hip ratio
  2. খ) Bio electrical impedance
  3. গ) Hand grip strength
  4. ঘ) Triceps skin fold thickness
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Hand grip strength
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Hand grip strength
ব্যাখ্যা
( Ref : Davidson 23rd ,p –693 )
১,৬৪৭.
Which one isn’t correct regarding CURB-65 score of pneumonia?
  1. ক) Confusion
  2. খ) Urea > 11 mmol/L
  3. গ) Respiratory rate > 30/min
  4. ঘ) Blood pressure (systolic < 90 mmHg or diastolic < 60 mmHg)
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Urea > 11 mmol/L
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Urea > 11 mmol/L
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
১,৬৪৮.
Which of the following shifts oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left?
  1. Increased 2,3- BPG
  2. Increased pH
  3. Increased CO2
  4. Increased temperature
সঠিক উত্তর:
Increased pH
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Increased pH
১,৬৪৯.
Outcome of Neisseria for fetus/neonate
  1. ক) Stillbirth
  2. খ) Miscarriage
  3. গ) Severe conjunctivitis
  4. ঘ) Pneumonia
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Severe conjunctivitis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Severe conjunctivitis
১,৬৫০.
Differential organic diagnosis of schizophrenia include
  1. Manic episode
  2. Temporal lobe epilepsy
  3. Schizoaffective disorder
  4. Puerperal psychosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Temporal lobe epilepsy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Temporal lobe epilepsy
১,৬৫১.
Most common primary bone tumour is-
  1. Ewing’s sarcoma
  2. Osteosarcoma
  3. Fibrosarcoma
  4. Osteoid osteoma
সঠিক উত্তর:
Osteosarcoma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Osteosarcoma
১,৬৫২.
A 72-year-old man presents with progressive difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. He reports unintentional weight loss of 15 pounds over the past few months. A barium swallow study shows a "bird-beak" appearance in the distal esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Achalasia
  2. Esophageal cancer
  3. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
  4. Diffuse esophageal spasm
সঠিক উত্তর:
Achalasia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Achalasia
ব্যাখ্যা
Stem Breakdown:

Progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids: This suggests a motility disorder of the oesophagus. In achalasia, there is difficulty with both solids and liquids due to impaired esophageal peristalsis and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax.
Unintentional weight loss: Weight loss is often seen in achalasia due to reduced caloric intake from dysphagia.
Bird-beak appearance on barium swallow: This classic radiological finding is specific for achalasia.
Option Analysis:

A) Achalasia: This is the correct diagnosis. Davidson and Harrison describe achalasia as a motility disorder characterised by the loss of peristalsis in the distal oesophagus and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax. The bird-beak appearance on barium swallow, progressive dysphagia, and weight loss are classic findings.
B) Esophageal cancer: Esophageal cancer often presents with dysphagia and weight loss, but it typically causes dysphagia that starts with solids and progresses to liquids. Additionally, the bird-beak appearance is not associated with cancer.
C) Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD): GERD causes heartburn, regurgitation, and sometimes dysphagia, but it does not cause a bird-beak appearance or progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids.
D) Diffuse esophageal spasm: Diffuse esophageal spasm causes intermittent dysphagia and chest pain but does not lead to the bird-beak appearance seen in achalasia.
১,৬৫৩.
Haemodynamic effect of expiration-
  1. Pulse accelerates
  2. JVP falls
  3. Systolic BP rises
  4. Second heart sound spluts
সঠিক উত্তর:
Systolic BP rises
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Systolic BP rises
ব্যাখ্যা
Macleod's Clinical Examination
১,৬৫৪.
What is the most evident symptom of myasthenia gravis?
  1. ক) Fatigable muscle weakness
  2. খ) Intermittent diplopia
  3. গ) Worsening of symptoms following exercise
  4. ঘ) Respiratory failure
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Fatigable muscle weakness
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Fatigable muscle weakness
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd, Page: 1141
Explanation: The most evident symptom is fatigable muscle weakness. Worsening of symptoms towards the end of the day or following exercise is characteristic.
১,৬৫৫.
Signs of vagal activation during acute coronary syndrome
  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Vomiting
  4. Sweating
সঠিক উত্তর:
Vomiting
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Vomiting
১,৬৫৬.
Which of the following is the pivotal investigation for infective endocarditis?
  1. ক) Echocardiography
  2. খ) ECG
  3. গ) ETT
  4. ঘ) Blood culture
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Blood culture
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Blood culture
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Blood culture is the pivotal investigation to identify the organism that is the cause of the infection and to guide antibiotic therapy.
১,৬৫৭.
Complications of nasogastric tube feeding-
  1. Risk of tumour seeding
  2. Intestinal perforation
  3. Refeeding syndrome
  4. Pneumothorax
সঠিক উত্তর:
Refeeding syndrome
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Refeeding syndrome
১,৬৫৮.
What is the Common complication of pneumonia?
  1. ক) Para-pneumonic effusion
  2. খ) Empyema
  3. গ) Retention of sputum causing lobar collapse
  4. ঘ) Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Para-pneumonic effusion
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Para-pneumonic effusion
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
১,৬৫৯.
1st symptom usually occur at CKD when GFR below
  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30
সঠিক উত্তর:
20
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
20
১,৬৬০.
Electrolyte and acid base status in GOO can be described as
  1. Hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
  2. Hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis
  3. Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
  4. Hyperchloraemic metabolic alkalosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-801
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
১,৬৬১.
Example of non coding repeat expansion disease-
  1. Spinocerebellar ataxia
  2. Spinobulbar muscular atrophy
  3. Friedreich’s ataxia
  4. Huntington’s disease
সঠিক উত্তর:
Friedreich’s ataxia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Friedreich’s ataxia
১,৬৬২.
Treatment of hypertonic bladder?
  1. Solifenacin
  2. Intermittent or in-dwelling catheterisation
  3. In-dwelling catheterisation
  4. Surgery
সঠিক উত্তর:
Solifenacin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Solifenacin
১,৬৬৩.
A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, easy bruising, and frequent nosebleeds. Laboratory tests show pancytopenia, and a bone marrow biopsy reveals hypocellularity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Aplastic anemia
  2. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
  3. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
  4. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
সঠিক উত্তর:
Aplastic anemia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Aplastic anemia
ব্যাখ্যা
Stem Breakdown:

Fatigue, easy bruising, and frequent nosebleeds: These symptoms suggest bone marrow failure, leading to anaemia (fatigue), thrombocytopenia (bruising, nosebleeds), and possibly leukopenia.
Pancytopenia and hypocellular bone marrow: Pancytopenia (low red cells, white cells, and platelets) with a hypocellular bone marrow is characteristic of aplastic anaemia.
Option Analysis:

A) Aplastic anaemia: This is the correct diagnosis. Davidson and Harrison describe aplastic anaemia as a condition in which the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient blood cells, leading to pancytopenia. The bone marrow is hypocellular (decreased cell production), and the condition can be caused by autoimmune factors, infections, or exposure to toxins.
B) Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML): AML presents with pancytopenia and blasts in the blood or bone marrow, but it is associated with hypercellular bone marrow filled with malignant cells, not hypocellularity.
C) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP): ITP causes isolated thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), leading to easy bruising and bleeding. However, it does not cause anaemia or leukopenia, and the bone marrow is typically normal or shows increased megakaryocytes.
D) Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS): MDS can cause pancytopenia, but the bone marrow in MDS is usually hypercellular with abnormal maturation of blood cells, not hypocellular.
১,৬৬৪.
Which condition is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
  1. Membranous nephropathy
  2. Minimal change disease
  3. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  4. Lupus nephritis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Minimal change disease
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Minimal change disease
ব্যাখ্যা
Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, characterized by normal glomeruli on light microscopy but podocyte effacement on electron microscopy.
১,৬৬৫.
Respiratory rate is increased following poisoning with…?
  1. ক) Opioids
  2. খ) Benzodiazepines
  3. গ) Salicylates
  4. ঘ) All of them
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Salicylates
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Salicylates
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-133
১,৬৬৬.
Which enzyme breaks down ANP & BNP?
  1. ক) Adenosine
  2. খ) Bradykinin
  3. গ) Neprilysin
  4. ঘ) Endothelin 1
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Neprilysin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Neprilysin
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd , Page : 447
Explanation : Neprilysin breaks down ANP , BNP & other proteins.
১,৬৬৭.
Which one is a fature of anxiety disorder?
  1. ক) Depressed mood
  2. খ) Palpitations
  3. গ) Reduced self-esteem
  4. ঘ) Loss of interest
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Palpitations
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Palpitations
১,৬৬৮.
Collapsing pulse may be found in-
  1. Severe aortic stenosis
  2. Severe aortic regurgitation
  3. Mitral stenosis
  4. Mitral regurgitation
সঠিক উত্তর:
Severe aortic regurgitation
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Severe aortic regurgitation
ব্যাখ্যা
Macleod's Clinical Examination
১,৬৬৯.
Before lumber puncture which investigation should be done?
  1. ক) CT
  2. খ) MRI
  3. গ) Fundoscopy
  4. ঘ) CBC
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Fundoscopy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Fundoscopy
ব্যাখ্যা
Before doing lumbar puncture, fundoscopy should be done to see papilloedema to exclude raised intracranial pressure.
১,৬৭০.
Diagnostic of GOO
  1. ক) Projectile vomiting
  2. খ) Visible gastric peristalsis
  3. গ) Succussion splash
  4. ঘ) Weight loss
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Visible gastric peristalsis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Visible gastric peristalsis
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-801
১,৬৭১.
Which one of the following is the cornerstone of the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction?
  1. ECG
  2. Echocardiography
  3. Troponin I
  4. Cardiac MRI
সঠিক উত্তর:
Troponin I
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Troponin I
ব্যাখ্যা
Troponin I and troponin T are structural cardiac muscle proteins that are released during myocyte damage and necrosis, and represent the cornerstone of the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction

Ref: Davidson P-393
১,৬৭২.
Antimicrobials causing pulmonary eosinophilia except
  1. Nitrofurantoin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Penicillin
  4. Erythromycin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Erythromycin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Erythromycin
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-612
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
১,৬৭৩.
Which of the following is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
  1. Myocardial infarction
  2. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  3. Aortic dissection
  4. Coronary artery disease
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
ব্যাখ্যা
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes. Davidson explains that in HCM, abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the interventricular septum, can obstruct blood flow and predispose to fatal arrhythmias. Harrison emphasises the importance of screening athletes with family histories of sudden cardiac death or unexplained syncope for HCM.
১,৬৭৪.
Most Common of type of headache?
  1. Tension Type of Headache
  2. Migraine
  3. Cluster Headache
  4. Trigeminal
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tension Type of Headache
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tension Type of Headache
১,৬৭৫.
Which is not a phagocytic cell?
  1. ক) Neutrophils
  2. খ) Lymphocyte
  3. গ) monocytes
  4. ঘ) Macrophages
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Lymphocyte
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Lymphocyte
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: phagocytic cell includes neutrophils, monocytes and macrophages
১,৬৭৬.
Classical presentation of stroke
  1. ক) Aphasia
  2. খ) Unilateral weakness
  3. গ) Unconsciousness
  4. ঘ) Seizure
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Unilateral weakness
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Unilateral weakness
ব্যাখ্যা
Davidson 23rd; P-1152
১,৬৭৭.
Late feature of cholestatic jaundice is?
  1. Dark urine
  2. Pale stools
  3. Malabsorption
  4. Pruritus
সঠিক উত্তর:
Malabsorption
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Malabsorption
১,৬৭৮.
Which one is an example of mucosal bleeding?
  1. Retroperitoneal heamorrhage
  2. Fundal haemorrhage
  3. Intracranial haemorrhage
  4. Haemarthrosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fundal haemorrhage
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fundal haemorrhage
১,৬৭৯.
Drug of choice in kala-azar?
  1. Liposomal Amphotericin B
  2. Miltefosine
  3. Paromomycin
  4. Combination treatment
সঠিক উত্তর:
Liposomal Amphotericin B
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Liposomal Amphotericin B
১,৬৮০.
Which of the following is most suggestive of conversion disorder?
  1. Positive Babinski reflex
  2. Symptoms improving with distraction
  3. MRI lesions
  4. Elevated CK levels
সঠিক উত্তর:
Symptoms improving with distraction
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Symptoms improving with distraction
ব্যাখ্যা
Inconsistency in symptoms and improvement with distraction are hallmarks of conversion disorder. There are no objective findings or lab abnormalities.
১,৬৮১.
A "pink puffer" is typically seen in which condition?
  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Pulmonary fibrosis
  3. Chronic bronchitis
  4. Emphysema
সঠিক উত্তর:
Emphysema
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Emphysema
ব্যাখ্যা
"Pink puffers" have emphysema — they maintain oxygenation but breathe rapidly (puffing) due to reduced alveolar surface area.
১,৬৮২.
CBC finding in asthma
  1. ক) Neutrophilia
  2. খ) Neutropenia
  3. গ) Eosinophilia
  4. ঘ) Lymphopenia
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Eosinophilia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Eosinophilia
১,৬৮৩.
Dopamine-depleting drug is
  1. OCP
  2. Methyldopa
  3. metoclopramide
  4. Antidepressants
সঠিক উত্তর:
Methyldopa
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Methyldopa
১,৬৮৪.
Which is a High-efficacy biologic therapy in MS?
  1. Fingolimod
  2. Teriflunomide
  3. Dimethyl fumarate
  4. Ocrelizumab
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fingolimod
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fingolimod
১,৬৮৫.
Which anti-TB drug causes hyperuricaemia?
  1. ক) Isoniazid
  2. খ) Rifampicin
  3. গ) Pyrazinamide
  4. ঘ) Ethambutol
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Pyrazinamide
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Pyrazinamide
১,৬৮৬.
A belief that one has special power indicates which type of delusion?
  1. ক) Persecutory
  2. খ) Hypochondriacal
  3. গ) Grandiose
  4. ঘ) Nihilistic
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Grandiose
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Grandiose
১,৬৮৭.
Unmyelinated nerve fibre is Type
  1. A-
  2. Aa
  3. B
  4. C
সঠিক উত্তর:
C
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
C
১,৬৮৮.
HRCT finding of DPLD
  1. ground glass changes
  2. reticulonodular shadowing
  3. honeycomb cysts
  4. ALL
সঠিক উত্তর:
ALL
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ALL
১,৬৮৯.
Causes of RBBB excludes
  1. ক) PE
  2. খ) ASD
  3. গ) CAD
  4. ঘ) HTN
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) HTN
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) HTN
১,৬৯০.
Which anti-TB drug cause Peripheral neuropathy?
  1. ক) Isoniazid
  2. খ) Rifampicin
  3. গ) Pyrazinamide
  4. ঘ) Streptomycin
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Isoniazid
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Isoniazid
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
১,৬৯১.
Most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome
  1. ক) Adrenal adenoma
  2. খ) Adrenal carcinoma
  3. গ) Idiopathic
  4. ঘ) Iatrogenic
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Iatrogenic
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Iatrogenic
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-666
১,৬৯২.
A 34-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and jaundice. Her liver enzymes are elevated, and her serum ceruloplasmin levels are low. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Wilson’s disease
  2. Hemochromatosis
  3. Autoimmune hepatitis
  4. Primary biliary cholangitis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Wilson’s disease
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Wilson’s disease
ব্যাখ্যা
Stem Breakdown:

Abdominal pain and jaundice: These symptoms indicate liver dysfunction, which can be seen in several liver conditions.
Elevated liver enzymes: suggests hepatocellular injury, as seen in liver diseases that cause inflammation or damage to hepatocytes.
Low serum ceruloplasmin: This is the key finding pointing towards Wilson’s disease, a disorder of copper metabolism where ceruloplasmin (the copper-carrying protein in blood) is deficient.
Option Analysis:

A) Wilson’s disease: This is the correct diagnosis. Davidson explains that Wilson’s disease is caused by a genetic defect in copper excretion, leading to copper accumulation in various tissues, including the liver and brain. Harrison adds that low ceruloplasmin levels and liver involvement are key diagnostic features, often presenting in young adults with hepatic or neuropsychiatric symptoms.
B) Hemochromatosis: This is a disorder of iron overload, not copper. It leads to increased serum iron and ferritin, not ceruloplasmin. While hemochromatosis can cause liver disease, it does not present with low ceruloplasmin levels.
C) Autoimmune hepatitis: Autoimmune hepatitis presents with elevated liver enzymes and positive autoantibodies (e.g., ANA, SMA), but ceruloplasmin levels are not affected.
D) Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC): PBC is an autoimmune condition affecting the bile ducts, leading to cholestasis and jaundice. It is associated with elevated alkaline phosphatase and antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA), but not low ceruloplasmin.
১,৬৯৩.
Overweight BMI cut off for Asian
  1. ক) 18.5
  2. খ) 23
  3. গ) 25
  4. ঘ) 30
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) 23
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) 23
১,৬৯৪.
A 50-year-old woman presents with a thunderclap headache and photophobia. CT head is normal. What is the next step?
  1. Lumbar puncture
  2. MRI brain
  3. Cerebral angiography
  4. Discharge with analgesia
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lumbar puncture
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lumbar puncture
ব্যাখ্যা
If CT is negative but clinical suspicion remains, lumbar puncture to detect xanthochromia is essential for diagnosing SAH
১,৬৯৫.
Indications of Colloid in Dengue is
  1. Patients with shock with declining Hct
  2. Those responding to the maximum volume of colloid
  3. Those with pulse pressure < 20 mm Hg
  4. Patients with massive plasma leakage
সঠিক উত্তর:
Patients with massive plasma leakage
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Patients with massive plasma leakage
ব্যাখ্যা
Indications of Colloid in Dengue
• Patients with massive plasma leakage
• Patients with shock with rising Hct.
• Those not responding to the maximum volume of crystalloid
• Those with pulse pressure < 10 mm Hg, who need urgent restore BP
১,৬৯৬.
Acute coronary syndrome includes
  1. Unstable angina
  2. ST elevated MI
  3. NSTEMI
  4. All are true
সঠিক উত্তর:
All are true
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
All are true
ব্যাখ্যা
Acute coronary syndrome is a term that encompasses both unstable angina and myocardial infarction
১,৬৯৭.
Pathogen for fried rice associated diarrhoea
  1. ক) E. coli
  2. খ) B. coli
  3. গ) B. cereus
  4. ঘ) B. anthracis
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) B. cereus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) B. cereus
১,৬৯৮.
Amber coloured pleural fluid indicates
  1. TB
  2. CCF
  3. RA
  4. SLE
সঠিক উত্তর:
TB
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
TB
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-563
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
১,৬৯৯.
The duties of a registered doctor include
  1. Provide a good standard of practice and care
  2. Take prompt action if you think that patient safety, dignity or comfort is being compromised
  3. Never abuse your patients’ trust in you or the public’s trust in the profession
  4. All
সঠিক উত্তর:
All
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
All
১,৭০০.
Absence of brain electrical activity is seen below-
  1. 10° C
  2. 15° C
  3. 20° C
  4. 25° C
সঠিক উত্তর:
20° C
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
20° C
ব্যাখ্যা
Davidson Page 253