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মোট প্রশ্ন১,৮২২এই পাতা১০০প্রতি পাতা১০০
ঘনত্ব
উত্তর
উত্তরিতবর্তমানপুনরায় দেখুনঅসম্পূর্ণ

Medicine

PrepBank · পাতা ১০ / ১৯ · ৯০১১,০০০ / ১,৮২২

৯০১.
Large proteins are blocked by
  1. Podocytes
  2. Fenestrations of capillary endothelium
  3. Glomerular Basement Membrane
  4. Slit diaphragms
সঠিক উত্তর:
Glomerular Basement Membrane
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Glomerular Basement Membrane
৯০২.
Which type of hepatitis virus is most commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water?
  1. HBV
  2. HAV
  3. HCV
  4. HDV
সঠিক উত্তর:
HAV
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
HAV
ব্যাখ্যা
HAV and HEV are transmitted via the faeco-oral route, especially in areas with poor sanitation.
৯০৩.
Cannon waves in JVP is seen in-
  1. Pericardial effusion
  2. Atrial brillation
  3. Complete heart blocK
  4. Tricuspid stenosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Complete heart blocK
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Complete heart blocK
ব্যাখ্যা
MacLeod's Clinical Examination, Page 59
৯০৪.
Howell–Jolly bodies are found in all of the following except
  1. ক) Hyposplenism
  2. খ) Post-splenectomy
  3. গ) Myelofibrosis
  4. ঘ) Dyshaematopoiesis
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Myelofibrosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Myelofibrosis
ব্যাখ্যা
Ref: Davidson 23rd; P- 921(Box-23.2)
৯০৫.
Which anti-hypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?
  1. ক) Amlodipine
  2. খ) Ramipril
  3. গ) Verapamil
  4. ঘ) Atenolol
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Ramipril
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Ramipril
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: ACE inhibitors & ARB are contraindicated in pregnancy
৯০৬.
Weight loss with pigmentation and hypotension is suggestive of which of the followings?
  1. ক) Thyrotoxicosis
  2. খ) Diabetes mellitus
  3. গ) Addison’s disease
  4. ঘ) Malabsorption syndrome.
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Addison’s disease
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Addison’s disease
৯০৭.
Example of Chronic type-1 Repiratory failure is..
  1. ক) Acute asthma
  2. খ) Pulmonary oedema
  3. গ) Pneumonia
  4. ঘ) Lung fibrosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Lung fibrosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Lung fibrosis
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
৯০৮.
Which of the following is not stored in liver?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Iron
  4. Bilirubin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Bilirubin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Bilirubin
৯০৯.
Which is not a feat of 3rd Nerve palsy?
  1. Dilated pupil
  2. Extraocular muscle palsy
  3. eye is typically ‘down and out
  4. None of the above
সঠিক উত্তর:
None of the above
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
None of the above
৯১০.
Clear or Light green color of ascitic fluid suggests which pathology?
  1. Infection
  2. Lymphatic obstruction
  3. Cirrhosis
  4. Malignant disease
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cirrhosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cirrhosis
৯১১.
Sterility due to bilateral orchitis may occur in
  1. ক) Measles
  2. খ) Mumps
  3. গ) Rubella
  4. ঘ) Parvovirus B19
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Mumps
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Mumps
৯১২.
Most common form of Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  1. ক) Nodular sclerosing
  2. খ) Mixed cellularity
  3. গ) Lymphocyte depletion
  4. ঘ) Lymphocyte predominant
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Nodular sclerosing
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Nodular sclerosing
৯১৩.
Autosomal recessive conditions exclude
  1. ক) Hemochromatosis
  2. খ) Wilson’s disease
  3. গ) Gilbert’s syndrome
  4. ঘ) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
৯১৪.
Type A lactic acidosis is caused by
  1. Cyanide
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Severe sepsis
  4. Metformin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cyanide
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cyanide
ব্যাখ্যা
Type B: Impaired Lactic acid  metabolism
•Severe sepsis
•Hepatic & Renal failure
•Drugs- Metformin, Ethanol
•Diabetes mellitus
Type A: Increased production, due to:
Hypotension – Shock, Cardiac failure
Tissue hypoxia:
Mitochondrial  dysfunction (CO, Cyanide) Severe anemia
৯১৫.
Which of the following drug causes hypokalaemia?
  1. ক) ACE inhibitors
  2. খ) Spironolactone
  3. গ) Insulin
  4. ঘ) Heparin
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Insulin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Insulin
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Insulin causes hypokalaemia, option A,B,D Drugs causes hyperkalaemia
৯১৬.
Cardiovascular presentation of syphilis
  1. ক) Pericarditis
  2. খ) Endocarditis
  3. গ) Myocarditis
  4. ঘ) Aortitis
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Aortitis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Aortitis
৯১৭.
Regarding Horner syndrome which is not correect ?
  1. ipsilateral carotid artery stroke
  2. Lack of sweating on opposite side
  3. Lack of sweating on affected side
  4. Ptosis is partial
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lack of sweating on opposite side
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Lack of sweating on opposite side
৯১৮.
Mild potent glucocorticoid is
  1. Hydrocortisone 1%
  2. Clobetasol propionate 0.05%
  3. Clobetasone butyrate 0.05%
  4. Clobetasone propionate 0.05%
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hydrocortisone 1%
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hydrocortisone 1%
ব্যাখ্যা
Mild
 Hydrocortisone 0.5%, 1%, 2.5%
 Hydrocortisone 1% and fusidic acid 2% (Fucidin H)
Potent
 Betamethasone valerate 0.1% (Betnovate)  Betamethasone valerate 0.1% and clioquinol 3% (Betnovate-C)  Fluocinolone acetonide 0.025% (Synalar)  Hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1% (Locoid)  Mometasone furoate 0.1% (Elocon)
৯১৯.
Absorption of Vitamin B12 occurs in?
  1. 2nd part of Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Terminal ileum
  4. Large intestine
সঠিক উত্তর:
Terminal ileum
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Terminal ileum
৯২০.
Auditory perception is related to
  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Temporal lobe
  3. Parietal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe
সঠিক উত্তর:
Temporal lobe
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Temporal lobe
৯২১.
Which one of the following is the specific investigation for thyphoid fever?
  1. ক) CBC
  2. খ) Stool cultures
  3. গ) Widal test
  4. ঘ) Blood culture
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Blood culture
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Blood culture
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Blood culture is the specific investigation for thyphoid fever
৯২২.
Vomiting with jaundice tender hepatomegaly
  1. ক) CCF
  2. খ) ICSOL
  3. গ) ALVF
  4. ঘ) Acute viral hepatitis
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Acute viral hepatitis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Acute viral hepatitis
৯২৩.
Nail change in infective endocarditis
  1. ক) Beau’s line
  2. খ) Lindsay’s nails
  3. গ) Muehrcke’s lines
  4. ঘ) Splinter haemorrhage
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Splinter haemorrhage
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) Splinter haemorrhage
৯২৪.
Non-eosinophilic alveolitis is caused by
  1. methotrexate
  2. gold
  3. mitomycin C
  4. All
সঠিক উত্তর:
All
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
All
৯২৫.
Which of the following is a major Jones criterion for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever?
  1. Erythema nodusum
  2. Erythema migrans
  3. Erythema marginatum
  4. Arthralgia
সঠিক উত্তর:
Erythema marginatum
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Erythema marginatum
ব্যাখ্যা

Major criterias are:

Arthritis
Carditis 
Chorea
Erythema marginatum
Subcutaneous nodule

৯২৬.
Vomiting without nausea is found in
  1. ক) GOO
  2. খ) Raised ICP
  3. গ) PUD
  4. ঘ) GERD
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Raised ICP
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Raised ICP
ব্যাখ্যা
Vomiting without nausea–raised intracranial pressure (ICP)
Projectile vomiting–gastric outlet obstruction
Pain abdomen relieved by vomiting–gastric ulcer
Vomiting with absolute constipation–intestinal obstruction
৯২৭.
What is a classic clinical feature of Cushing’s syndrome?
  1. Weight loss
  2. Central obesity
  3. Hypotension
  4. Bradycardia
সঠিক উত্তর:
Central obesity
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Central obesity
ব্যাখ্যা
Central obesity (truncal fat, moon face, buffalo hump) is a classic feature of Cushing’s syndrome due to excess cortisol. Weight loss is seen in adrenal insufficiency, and hypertension (not hypotension) and tachycardia (not bradycardia) are common
৯২৮.
The minor unmeasured cations are
  1. gamma globulins
  2. magnesium
  3. Sodium
  4. calcium
সঠিক উত্তর:
Sodium
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Sodium
ব্যাখ্যা
The major unmeasured cations are calcium,  magnesium, gamma globulins.
৯২৯.
A 62-year-old man with a history of chronic hypertension presents with sudden-onset weakness in his right arm and difficulty speaking. CT scan of the head shows a small area of ischemia in the left middle cerebral artery territory. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
  2. Ischemic stroke
  3. Hemorrhagic stroke
  4. Subdural hematoma
সঠিক উত্তর:
Ischemic stroke
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Ischemic stroke
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Stem Breakdown:

Sudden-onset weakness and difficulty speaking: These are classic signs of a stroke.
CT showing ischaemia in the left middle cerebral artery (MCA): This confirms that the stroke is ischaemic in nature.
Option Analysis:

A) Transient ischaemic attack (TIA): A TIA involves brief episodes of neurological dysfunction caused by temporary ischaemia without infarction. In this case, the CT scan shows ischaemia, indicating tissue damage, which rules out TIA.
B) Ischaemic stroke: This is the correct diagnosis. Davidson and Harrison explain that ischaemic strokes are caused by obstruction of a cerebral artery, leading to tissue infarction. Sudden-onset weakness (hemiparesis) and difficulty speaking (aphasia) are typical of a left MCA stroke.
C) Hemorrhagic stroke: Hemorrhagic stroke involves bleeding into the brain tissue, often presenting with a more severe clinical picture, including altered consciousness, headache, and vomiting. In this case, the CT shows ischaemia rather than haemorrhage.
D) Subdural haematoma: Subdural haematoma results from venous bleeding, typically following head trauma, and presents with a gradual onset of symptoms like confusion and headache. It does not present with acute ischaemic findings on CT.
৯৩০.
Minor manifestations of rheumatic fever is
  1. Erythema marginatum
  2. Arthralgia
  3. Carditis
  4. Leukopenia
সঠিক উত্তর:
Arthralgia
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Arthralgia
৯৩১.
Which of the following is the most common neurological complication of HIV infection?
  1. Cryptococcal meningitis
  2. Toxoplasmosis
  3. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)
  4. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
সঠিক উত্তর:
HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the most common neurological complication in HIV-infected individuals, as described by Davidson. Cognitive deterioration, motor impairment, and behavioural abnormalities are all possible signs of HAND. Harrison emphasises that although antiretroviral therapy (ART) has reduced the incidence of severe forms, mild cognitive impairment remains common.
৯৩২.
A chronic alcoholic presents with ataxia, confusion, and horizontal nystagmus. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is most likely?
  1. Thiamine (B1)
  2. Niacin (B3)
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin K
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thiamine (B1)
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thiamine (B1)
ব্যাখ্যা
Wernicke’s encephalopathy (ataxia, confusion, nystagmus) is caused by thiamine deficiency. Niacin deficiency causes pellagra (dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia).
৯৩৩.
Blood-stained pleural fluid isn’t found in
  1. ক) Malignant disease
  2. খ) Cardiac failure
  3. গ) Pulmonary infarction
  4. ঘ) Acute pancreatitis
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Cardiac failure
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Cardiac failure
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-563
৯৩৪.
A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of heat intolerance, weight loss, and palpitations. On examination, she has a diffusely enlarged thyroid and exophthalmos. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
  1. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
  2. Radioactive iodine
  3. Beta-blockers
  4. Thyroidectomy
সঠিক উত্তর:
Beta-blockers
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Beta-blockers
ব্যাখ্যা
Stem Breakdown:

Heat intolerance, weight loss, palpitations: These symptoms suggest hyperthyroidism.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement and exophthalmos: These signs strongly indicate Graves’ disease, an autoimmune form of hyperthyroidism where antibodies stimulate the thyroid to overproduce thyroid hormone.
Option Analysis:

A) Propylthiouracil (PTU): PTU is an antithyroid medication used to inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis. While it is an important treatment for Graves’ disease, it is not the first-line treatment in an acute setting. Beta-blockers are initially used to control symptoms such as palpitations and tachycardia.
B) Radioactive iodine: Radioactive iodine is a definitive treatment for Graves’ disease, as it destroys overactive thyroid tissue. However, it is not used as an initial treatment to control acute symptoms.
C) Beta-blockers: This is the correct answer. Davidson and Harrison explain that beta-blockers (e.g., propranolol) are used to manage the adrenergic symptoms of hyperthyroidism (palpitations, tremors, anxiety) while more definitive treatments (e.g., antithyroid medications or radioactive iodine) are initiated.
D) Thyroidectomy: Thyroidectomy is reserved for patients who fail medical therapy or cannot tolerate other treatments. It is not used as initial treatment for hyperthyroidism.
৯৩৫.
Third heart sound is physiologically found in
  1. Anemia
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Thyrotoxicosis
  4. Fever
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pregnancy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pregnancy
ব্যাখ্যা
Physiological third heart sound: young people, pregnancy
Pathologicalthird heart sound: heart failure, mitral regurgitation
৯৩৬.
First step of management of acute heart failure is ‘Sit the patient up’, why this step is taken for?
  1. ক) Reduces preload
  2. খ) Reduces afterload
  3. গ) Combats fluid overload
  4. ঘ) Corrects hypoxia
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Reduces preload
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Reduces preload
৯৩৭.
Atrial fibrillation occurs in about ____________ % of patients with thyrotoxicosis
  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40
সঠিক উত্তর:
10
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
10
৯৩৮.
Clinical features of cardiac tamponade excludes
  1. Pulsus paradoxus
  2. Kussmaul’s sign
  3. Gross elevation of JVP
  4. Hepatomegaly
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hepatomegaly
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hepatomegaly
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-544
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
৯৩৯.
ECG finding in TCA poisoning is..
  1. ক) Narrow QRS complex
  2. খ) Broad QRS complex
  3. গ) ST elevation
  4. ঘ) ST depression
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Broad QRS complex
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Broad QRS complex
৯৪০.
1st step in treatment of severe hyperkalemia should be
  1. ক) IV calcium gluconate
  2. খ) IV glucose
  3. গ) IV frusemide
  4. ঘ) Inhaled beta-2 agonist
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) IV calcium gluconate
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) IV calcium gluconate
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-363
৯৪১.
Amber coloured pleural fluid indicates
  1. ক) TB
  2. খ) CCF
  3. গ) RA
  4. ঘ) SLE
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) TB
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) TB
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-563
৯৪২.
Which hormone is secreted from Throughout GIT?
  1. ক) Gastrin
  2. খ) Somatostatin
  3. গ) Cholecystokinin
  4. ঘ) Secretin
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Somatostatin
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Somatostatin
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd Box 21.2
৯৪৩.
Pansystolic murmur is found in
  1. MS
  2. MR
  3. AS
  4. AR
সঠিক উত্তর:
MR
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
MR
৯৪৪.
Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is an acute febrile illness (of less than_____________days characterised by diffuse pulmonary infiltrates and hypoxic respiratory failure
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
সঠিক উত্তর:
5
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
5
ব্যাখ্যা
Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is an acute febrile illness (of less than 5 days’ duration), characterised by diffuse pulmonary infilltrates and hypoxic respiratory failure.
৯৪৫.
Which is a initial HIV test?
  1. ELISA
  2. Western Blot
  3. PCR
  4. CBC
সঠিক উত্তর:
ELISA
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ELISA
৯৪৬.
Among Hepatotopic viruses which concern with major risk factor for developing HCC?
  1. ক) dfx Hepatitis A
  2. খ) Hepatitis B
  3. গ) Hepatitis C
  4. ঘ) Hepatitis E
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Hepatitis B
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Hepatitis B
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Chronic hepatitis B infection increases the risk of HCC 100-fold and is the major risk factor worldwide
৯৪৭.
Molluscum contagiosum is caused by
  1. ক) HHV - 8
  2. খ) Parvo virus
  3. গ) Pox virus
  4. ঘ) Papilloma virus
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Pox virus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Pox virus
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd , Page : 1239
৯৪৮.
Cardinal finding in portal hypertension
  1. Splenomegaly
  2. Ascites
  3. Renal fsilure
  4. Variceal bleeding
সঠিক উত্তর:
Splenomegaly
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Splenomegaly
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-868
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
৯৪৯.
Which condition should be suspected in a patient with unexplained right heart failure and a small heart ?
  1. ক) Rrstrictive cardiomyopathy
  2. খ) Chronic constrictive pericarditis
  3. গ) Acute pericarditis
  4. ঘ) Cardiac tamponade
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Chronic constrictive pericarditis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Chronic constrictive pericarditis
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd , Page : 543
Explanation : chronic constrictive pericarditis is sometimes overlooked but should be suspected in any patient with unexplained right heart failure and a small heart.
Differential diagnosis of small heart : Chronic constrictive pericarditis,Addison’s disease, Starvation.
৯৫০.
Both Renin & aldosterone level is low in
  1. ক) Liddle’s syndrome
  2. খ) Renal artery stenosis
  3. গ) Barter’s syndrome
  4. ঘ) Conn’s syndrome
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Liddle’s syndrome
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Liddle’s syndrome
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-674
৯৫১.
Which investigation will help to differentiate between a Charcot joint and osteomyelitis?
  1. ক) PET scan
  2. খ) CT scan
  3. গ) X-ray
  4. ঘ) MRI
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) MRI
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ঘ) MRI
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-762
৯৫২.
Which of the following conditions is most likely to present with pulsus paradoxus?
  1. Aortic stenosis
  2. Cardiac tamponade
  3. Pulmonary embolism
  4. Atrial fibrillation
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cardiac tamponade
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Cardiac tamponade
ব্যাখ্যা
Pulsus paradoxus, a decrease in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg during inspiration, is a classic finding in cardiac tamponade. Davidson explains that in tamponade, fluid accumulation in the pericardium compresses the heart, reducing ventricular filling during inspiration and leading to a drop in blood pressure. Harrison adds that pulsus paradoxus can be detected by palpating the pulse or measuring blood pressure during the respiratory cycle.
৯৫৩.
Steatorrhoea signify malabsorption of
  1. Carbohydrate
  2. Protein
  3. Fat
  4. Vitamin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fat
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fat
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-783
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
৯৫৪.
Which is the Initial investigation of dementia?
  1. Lumbar puncture
  2. HIV serology
  3. Brain biopsy
  4. anti-dsDNA
সঠিক উত্তর:
anti-dsDNA
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
anti-dsDNA
৯৫৫.
Hallpike manoeuvre is associted in
  1. BPPV
  2. Migraine
  3. Epilepsy
  4. Head injury
সঠিক উত্তর:
BPPV
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
BPPV
৯৫৬.
Most common malignant thyroid tumor
  1. ক) Papillary carcinoma
  2. খ) Follicular carcinoma
  3. গ) Medullary carcinoma
  4. ঘ) Anaplastic tumor
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Papillary carcinoma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Papillary carcinoma
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-649
৯৫৭.
Which of the following is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
  1. Arteriovenous malformation
  2. Hypertension
  3. Trauma
  4. Ruptured aneurysm
সঠিক উত্তর:
Ruptured aneurysm
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Ruptured aneurysm
ব্যাখ্যা
A ruptured aneurysm is the most common cause of non-traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage. Davidson explains that aneurysms, particularly berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis, are prone to rupture, causing bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Harrison highlights that patients typically present with a sudden, severe "thunderclap" headache, and diagnosis is confirmed with CT or lumbar puncture showing blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
৯৫৮.
Which is the best means of detecting ascites?
  1. Xray
  2. USG
  3. CT
  4. MRI
সঠিক উত্তর:
USG
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
USG
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-863
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
৯৫৯.
Fever, cough, night sweats for 6 weeks is suggestive of
  1. ক) Br. Carcinoma
  2. খ) Tuberculosis
  3. গ) Lymphoma
  4. ঘ) Brochietasis
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Tuberculosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Tuberculosis
৯৬০.
Antihypertensive contraindicated in gout
  1. Thiazide
  2. ARB
  3. CCB
  4. Beta blocker
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thiazide
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Thiazide
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-514
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
৯৬১.
Which factor can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy?
  1. ক) Infection
  2. খ) IV fluid
  3. গ) Hyperkalaemia
  4. ঘ) Diarrhoea
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Infection
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Infection
৯৬২.
Abdominal TB most commonly affects
  1. ক) Gastroduodenal region
  2. খ) Ileocecal region
  3. গ) Left colic flexure
  4. ঘ) Right colic flexure
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Ileocecal region
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Ileocecal region
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-812
৯৬৩.
Drug induced lupus is caused by-
  1. Glucocorticoids
  2. Rifampicin
  3. Isoniazid
  4. Ciclosporin
সঠিক উত্তর:
Isoniazid
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Isoniazid
৯৬৪.
Which of the following acts as a stimulus for secretion of Ghrelin?
  1. Fatty acids
  2. Feeding
  3. Fasting
  4. Product of of protein digestion
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fasting
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Fasting
৯৬৫.
2nd line drug for GTCS
  1. ক) Lamotrigine
  2. খ) Valproate
  3. গ) Ethosuximide
  4. ঘ) Levetiracetam
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Lamotrigine
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Lamotrigine
৯৬৬.
Less commonn cause of lung cancer
  1. Adenocarcinoma
  2. Large-cell
  3. Squamous
  4. Small-cell
সঠিক উত্তর:
Large-cell
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Large-cell
৯৬৭.
Which of the following is the most revealing investigation for diagnosis of liver abscess?
  1. ক) CBC
  2. খ) USG
  3. গ) LFT
  4. ঘ) Liver biopsy
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) USG
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) USG
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Liver imaging is the most revealing investigation
৯৬৮.
Which one is responsible for development of Nephrotic syndrome?
  1. Breaks in glomerular basement membrane
  2. Reactive cell proliferation
  3. Injury to podocytes
  4. Inflammation
সঠিক উত্তর:
Injury to podocytes
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Injury to podocytes
৯৬৯.
Which one is the first line investigation for stroke?
  1. Xray skull
  2. CT
  3. MRI
  4. MRA/MRV
সঠিক উত্তর:
MRI
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
MRI
ব্যাখ্যা
X-rays: used for fractures or foreign bodie
CT: Firrst line for stroke
৯৭০.
Cause of major elevation of serum transaminases?
  1. Fatty liver disease
  2. Wilson’s disease
  3. Acute viral hepatitis
  4. Alcoholic hepatitis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Acute viral hepatitis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Acute viral hepatitis
৯৭১.
Which of the following is an antiplatelet drug?
  1. ক) Warfarin
  2. খ) Ticagrelor
  3. গ) Rivaroxaban
  4. ঘ) Heparin
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Ticagrelor
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Ticagrelor
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Ticagrelor is an antiplatelet drug. Warfarin, Rivaroxaban, Heparin are anticoagulants
৯৭২.
Predisposing factor for toxic shock syndrome
  1. ক) Vaginal tampons
  2. খ) Improper food storage
  3. গ) Poor skin hygiene
  4. ঘ) IV drug use
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Vaginal tampons
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
ক) Vaginal tampons
৯৭৩.
Which is not Strict anaerobes?
  1. Bacteroides spp.
  2. Clostridium spp.
  3. Fusobacterium spp.
  4. Treponema pallidum
সঠিক উত্তর:
Treponema pallidum
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Treponema pallidum
ব্যাখ্যা
Strict anaerobes
Bacteroides spp.
Clostridioides difficile Clostridium spp.
Fusobacterium spp.
৯৭৪.
Which one is the most important modifiable risk factor of coronary artery disease?
  1. Smoking
  2. Alcohol
  3. Obesity
  4. Physical inactivity
সঠিক উত্তর:
Smoking
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Smoking
ব্যাখ্যা
There is a strong relationship between cigarette smoking and CAD, especially in younger (< 70 years) individuals, and this is the most important modifiable risk factor.
৯৭৫.
A 25-year-old woman presents with fever, pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis. She has a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Pulmonary embolism
  2. Pneumonia
  3. Lung cancer
  4. Tuberculosis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pulmonary embolism
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pulmonary embolism
ব্যাখ্যা
Stem Breakdown:

Fever, pleuritic chest pain, and haemoptysis: These are common symptoms of pulmonary embolism (PE), particularly when there is pulmonary infarction.
History of recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT): DVT is the most common source of emboli in PE, making this history highly suggestive of PE as the cause.
Option Analysis:

A) Pulmonary embolism: This is the correct diagnosis. Davidson and Harrison explain that pulmonary embolism occurs when a thrombus from the venous system (often from the leg veins) embolises to the pulmonary arteries. The combination of pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, and a history of DVT strongly suggests PE.
B) Pneumonia: Pneumonia causes fever, cough, and pleuritic chest pain, but it usually presents with productive sputum, not haemoptysis. Additionally, a history of recurrent DVT is not typically associated with pneumonia.
C) Lung cancer: Lung cancer can cause haemoptysis and chest pain, but it is usually a chronic process associated with weight loss and a mass on imaging. This patient's history of recurrent DVT and acute presentation make PE more likely.
D) Tuberculosis: Tuberculosis can cause fever, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain, but it typically presents with chronic symptoms and is associated with a history of exposure or travel to endemic areas. The acute onset and history of DVT make PE more likely.
৯৭৬.
Which scoring system is used for assessment of bleeding risk in patients receiving oral anticoagulation ?
  1. ক) Ranson score
  2. খ) CHA2DS2-VASc
  3. গ) HAS-BLED
  4. ঘ) Blatchford score
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) HAS-BLED
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) HAS-BLED
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd , Page : 473 , Box : 16.24
৯৭৭.
Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?
  1. ক) IgA
  2. খ) IgE
  3. গ) IgG
  4. ঘ) IgM
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) IgG
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) IgG
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: IgG distributed equally between blood and extracellular fluid and transported across placenta.
৯৭৮.
Cause of pansystolic murmur-
  1. Mitral valve prolapse
  2. Patent ductus arteriosus
  3. Tricuspid regurgitation
  4. Pulmonary regurgitation
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tricuspid regurgitation
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Tricuspid regurgitation
ব্যাখ্যা
Macleod's Clinical Examination
৯৭৯.
Which immunoglobulin is highly effective in neutralising toxins?
  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgE
সঠিক উত্তর:
IgA
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
IgA
৯৮০.
Which of the following feature isn’t related to hypothyroidism?
  1. ক) Weight gain
  2. খ) Heat intolerance
  3. গ) Fatigue
  4. ঘ) somnolence
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Heat intolerance
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Heat intolerance
ব্যাখ্যা
It will be cold intolerance , Reference: Davidson 23rd, Box-18.7
৯৮১.
Cause of weight loss in adults due to impaired energy storage?
  1. Thyrotoxicosis
  2. Addison disease
  3. Cancer cachexia
  4. Diabetes mellitus
সঠিক উত্তর:
Addison disease
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Addison disease
৯৮২.
Which of the followings is the best treatment option after diagnosis of IBS?
  1. ক) 5 ASA
  2. খ) Amitryptyline
  3. গ) Reassuarance
  4. ঘ) Loperamide
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Reassuarance
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Reassuarance
ব্যাখ্যা
E E Explanation: The most important steps are to make a positive diagnosis and reassure the patient
৯৮৩.
A key feature of chronic pancreatitis is:
  1. Hyperinsulinemia
  2. Pancreatic calcification
  3. Gallstones
  4. Rapid onset pain
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pancreatic calcification
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pancreatic calcification
ব্যাখ্যা
Chronic inflammation leads to fibrosis and calcification. Pain is chronic and may lead to exocrine and endocrine insufficiency
৯৮৪.
QRS complex of 12 lead ECG represents which of the following?
  1. ক) atrial depolarization
  2. খ) atrial repolarization
  3. গ) ventricular depolarization
  4. ঘ) ventricular repolarization
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) ventricular depolarization
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) ventricular depolarization
৯৮৫.
In subacute thyroiditis radio iodine uptake is
  1. ক) High
  2. খ) Low
  3. গ) Variable
  4. ঘ) Normal
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Low
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Low
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd, Page : 646
৯৮৬.
Which of the following findings supports a diagnosis of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)?
  1. Symptoms onset <24 hours after admission
  2. Onset ≥48 hours after hospital admission
  3. Exposure to cold air
  4. Prior tuberculosis infection
সঠিক উত্তর:
Onset ≥48 hours after hospital admission
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Onset ≥48 hours after hospital admission
ব্যাখ্যা
HAP is defined as pneumonia occurring ≥48 hours after admission, not incubating at admission. It is commonly caused by Gram-negative organisms like PseudomonasKlebsiella, and MRSA. These infections are often more resistant to antibiotics and carry higher morbidity. Management requires empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics, adjusted based on culture results.
৯৮৭.
What is the treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism caused by Graves’ disease?
  1. Radioactive iodine therapy
  2. Thyroidectomy
  3. Methimazole
  4. Beta-blockers
সঠিক উত্তর:
Radioactive iodine therapy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Radioactive iodine therapy
ব্যাখ্যা
Answer: A
Explanation: Radioactive iodine therapy is the most common treatment for Graves’ disease. Davidson explains that radioactive iodine selectively destroys thyroid tissue, leading to reduced thyroid hormone production. Harrison notes that this therapy is particularly effective in older patients and those with contraindications to surgery. Methimazole and beta-blockers are often used as adjunctive therapies but are not definitive treatments.
৯৮৮.
Most serious complication of agranulocytosis:
  1. Anaemia
  2. Bleeding
  3. Life-threatening infection
  4. Autoimmune reaction
সঠিক উত্তর:
Life-threatening infection
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Life-threatening infection
ব্যাখ্যা
Neutropenia leaves patients vulnerable to severe bacterial and fungal infections.
৯৮৯.
(wool-sorter’s disease) is
  1. Anthrax
  2. Diptheria
  3. TB
  4. Tetanus
সঠিক উত্তর:
Anthrax
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Anthrax
৯৯০.
T cells are originated from-
  1. Cortex
  2. Paracortex
  3. Medulla
  4. Germinal centre
সঠিক উত্তর:
Paracortex
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Paracortex
৯৯১.
Which is the drug of choice for bipolar disorder?
  1. ক) Lamotrigine
  2. খ) Sodium valproate
  3. গ) Lithium carbonate
  4. ঘ) Risperidone
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Lithium carbonate
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Lithium carbonate
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd , Page : 1200
Explanation : Lithium carbonate is the drug of first choice for bipolar disorder.
৯৯২.
Which one is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young?
  1. Dilated cardiomyopathy
  2. Acute coronary syndrome
  3. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
  4. Acute pericarditis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
ব্যাখ্যা
HOCM is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. 
Always consider HOCM in sudden death & unusual collapse in young person
৯৯৩.
Which of the following is the earliest marker to detect HIV infection?
  1. HIV antibodies
  2. CD4 count
  3. Viral culture
  4. p24 antigen
সঠিক উত্তর:
p24 antigen
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
p24 antigen
ব্যাখ্যা
p24 antigen appears earlier than antibodies and is used in fourth-generation HIV tests
৯৯৪.
Curdy white discharge is found in
  1. Candidiasis
  2. BV
  3. Trichomoniasis
  4. Aerobic vaginitis
সঠিক উত্তর:
Candidiasis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Candidiasis
৯৯৫.
Freezing cold injury
  1. ক) Chilblains
  2. খ) Frostbite
  3. গ) Trench foot
  4. ঘ) Immersion foot
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Frostbite
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
খ) Frostbite
ব্যাখ্যা

 Freezing
   Frostbite
 Non freezing
   Trench foot
   Immersion foot
   Chilblains

৯৯৬.
Ocular features in Neurofibromatosis type 1 include-
  1. Cataracts
  2. Retinal hamartoma
  3. Glaucoma
  4. Optic nerve meningioma
সঠিক উত্তর:
Glaucoma
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Glaucoma
৯৯৭.
CVS cause of haemoptysis is
  1. ক) AMI
  2. খ) Right heart failure
  3. গ) Mitral stenosis
  4. ঘ) unstable angina
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Mitral stenosis
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Mitral stenosis
৯৯৮.
Dominant feature in obstructive jaundice
  1. Pruritus
  2. Dark urine
  3. Pale stool
  4. Fever
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pruritus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
Pruritus
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-861
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
৯৯৯.
In Lateral Medullary syndrome lesion occur in
  1. 5 CN
  2. 7 CN
  3. 8 CN
  4. 3 CN
সঠিক উত্তর:
5 CN
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
5 CN
১,০০০.
Acute coryza is mostly caused by
  1. ক) Adeno virus
  2. খ) RSV
  3. গ) Rhinovirus
  4. ঘ) Corona virus
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Rhinovirus
উত্তর
সঠিক উত্তর:
গ) Rhinovirus
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-581