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৪৮তম স্পেশাল বিসিএস ডেন্টাল ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]

পরীক্ষা৪৮তম স্পেশাল বিসিএস ডেন্টাল ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]তারিখতারিখ অনির্ধারিতসময়40 minutes
মোট প্রশ্ন৮০
সিলেবাস
Exam – 14 Subject Final Topics: Medicine, Surgery, Physiology, Biochemistry, General Pharmacology, Pathology and Microbiology.
ঘনত্ব
উত্তর
উত্তরিতবর্তমানপুনরায় দেখুনঅসম্পূর্ণ

৪৮তম স্পেশাল বিসিএস ডেন্টাল ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]

৪৮তম স্পেশাল বিসিএস ডেন্টাল ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived] · তারিখ অনির্ধারিত · ৮০ প্রশ্ন

.
A young adult presents with gum bleeding, pallor and gingival hyperplasia. CBC shows anemia and high WBC count. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Dengue
  2. ITP
  3. Scurvy
  4. Leukemia
ব্যাখ্যা
Leukemia commonly presents with-
-anemia
-pallor
-gingival hyperplasia
-petechiae and
-hepatosplenomegaly due to bone marrow infiltration.
The gum bleeding and pallor reflect thrombocytopenia and anemia. Gingival hypertrophy is especially common in AML. Diagnosis is confirmed with CBC, peripheral smear and bone marrow biopsy. 

(Ref-Cawson+Davidson)
.
A CKD patient complains of bad breath and delayed healing after extraction. Which oral feature is expected?
  1. Dry socket
  2. Uremic odor
  3. Angular cheilitis
  4. Pyogenic granuloma
ব্যাখ্যা
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) causes accumulation of uremic toxins, leading to a characteristic ammonia or metallic odor in the mouth.
Patients may also have-
-xerostomia
-delayed wound healing and
-increased bleeding tendency due to platelet dysfunction.
Dental management includes avoiding nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs.

(Ref- Davidson+ Odell)

 
.
Which is not an oral manifestation of COVID-19?
  1. Xerostomia
  2. Ageusia
  3. Oral candidiasis
  4. Aphthous ulcer
ব্যাখ্যা
Common oral symptoms of COVID19 include-
-dry mouth (xerostomia)
-altered or lost taste (dysgeusia or ageusia) and
-candidiasis, especially in steroid treated patients. Aphthous ulcers are not a classical finding of COVID19. Emphasis is placed on PPE use and aerosol reducing measures during dental procedures.

(Ref-National covid-19 guideline)
.
A patient with oral ulcers, immunosuppression and xerostomia on chemotherapy likely has:
  1. Herpes
  2. Candida infection
  3. Periodontitis
  4. Aphthous ulcers
ব্যাখ্যা

Oral candidiasis is common in patients on chemotherapy or steroids, due to immunosuppression and xerostomia. White patches (pseudomembranes) on the tongue or buccal mucosa that scrape off are typical. Treatment involves topical antifungals like nystatin or systemic fluconazole.

(Ref: Clinical dentistry by Crispian Scully)
.
Which of the following is the best investigation to differentiate a cystic vs solid breast lump?
  1. FNAC
  2. CT scan
  3. Ultrasound
  4. Mammography
ব্যাখ্যা
Ultrasound is the preferred initial imaging for a breast lump, especially in young women, to differentiate between cystic and solid lesions. Cystic lumps are usually benign.
Solid ones may require further evaluation (FNAC or mammography). It's noninvasive and helps guide next steps in management.

(Ref: Clinical surgery by Makkhan Lal)
.
Which structure in bacteria is responsible for motility?
  1. Capsule
  2. Pili
  3. Flagella
  4. Plasmid
ব্যাখ্যা
Bacteria move using flagella, which are long, whiplike appendages anchored in the bacterial membrane. These flagella rotate like a propeller, powered by a proton gradient, allowing bacteria to swim through liquid environments. Motility is crucial for chemotaxis (movement toward or away from chemical stimuli), enabling the bacterium to locate nutrients or evade harmful substances. Unlike pili (used for conjugation and adhesion), flagella are dedicated motility structures. Flagella are especially important for organisms like Escherichia coli, Salmonella, and Vibrio cholerae.

(Ref: Lange Microbiology)
.
Gingival overgrowth is most commonly associated with which antihypertensive drug?
  1. Atenolol
  2. Nifedipine
  3. Furosemide
  4. Enalapril
ব্যাখ্যা
Gingival hyperplasia is a condition where gum tissue becomes enlarged, potentially leading to pain, disfigurement and difficulty with oral hygiene.  
The severity of gingival overgrowth can vary and its development can be influenced by factors like oral hygiene and individual susceptibility.  

Drug that causes gingival enlargement/ hyperplasia:

Anticonvulsants:
-phenytoin (most common)
-vigabatrin,
-sodium valproate,
-primidone and
-phenobarbital can also cause gingival enlargement.  

Immunosuppressants:
Cyclosporine: This immunosuppressant drug, often used to prevent organ rejection after transplant, has a strong association with gingival overgrowth.  

Calcium Channel Blockers:
Nifedipine: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker used in hypertension, causes gingival overgrowth as a side effect. The gums become swollen and fibrotic, sometimes covering teeth. 

-amlodipine,
-verapamil,
-nicardipine,
-nitrendipine,
-oxodipine,
-felodipine and
diltiazem, can also cause gingival hypertrophy. 
 
Other Medications:
Oral contraceptives, while not as commonly cited as the above, have also been associated with increased gingival inflammation and attachment loss.  

(Ref: Oral medicine by odell+NIH guideline)
.
A young male with right lower abdominal pain and tenderness at McBurney’s point is most likely suffering from:
  1. Gastritis
  2. Pancreatitis
  3. Meckel’s diverticulitis
  4. Appendicitis
ব্যাখ্যা
McBurney's point tenderness (onethird the distance from Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to umbilicus) is a hallmark of acute appendicitis.
Other symptoms include-
-right lower quadrant pain,
-nausea,
-vomiting and
-anorexia.
Prompt surgical referral prevents complications like  perforation or peritonitis.

(Ref:Bailey and love's)
.
Which dental condition is most commonly associated with poorly controlled diabetes?
  1. Dental caries
  2. Oral leukoplakia
  3. Pulpitis
  4. Periodontitis
ব্যাখ্যা
Periodontitis in Diabetes 
Poor glycemic control in diabetes weakens immune defense and alters oral flora, leading to chronic gum inflammation and bone loss—periodontitis. Patients may have mobile teeth, gum recession and poor healing. Dental evaluation and glycemic control are essential.
(Ref: Cawson)
১০.
Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?
  1. IgA
  2. IgM
  3. IgG
  4. IgE
ব্যাখ্যা
IgG is the only immunoglobulin isotype that can cross the placental barrier to provide passive immunity to the developing fetus. This transfer occurs via neonatal Fc receptors (FcRn) present on placental syncytiotrophoblasts. It protects the newborn during the first few months of life against infections. Among the four subclasses (IgG1–IgG4), IgG1 is the most efficiently transferred. This maternal antibody offers temporary immunity until the infant’s own immune system matures.

(Ref:Lange Microbiology)
১১.
A patient with dengue fever presents with gum bleeding, petechiae and hypotension. What is the most likely complication?
  1. Sepsis
  2. Dengue shock syndrome
  3. Anaphylaxis
  4. ITP
ব্যাখ্যা

Dengue fever can progress to dengue hemorrhagic fever and then to dengue shock syndrome (DSS), characterized by hypotension, cold clammy skin, petechiae and internal bleeding.
Gum bleeding and hypotension in this patient suggest plasma leakage and shock; hallmark signs of DSS.
It’s a medical emergency needing fluids and ICU care.

(Ref: National guideline of dengue)
১২.
What is the classical clinical test for cholecystitis?
  1. McBurney’s sign
  2. Cullen’s sign
  3. Grey Turner’s sign
  4. Murphy’s sign
ব্যাখ্যা
Murphy’s Sign 
Murphy’s sign is elicited by asking the patient to inhale while pressing on the right upper abdomen. In acute cholecystitis, the inflamed gallbladder causes sharp pain and the patient abruptly stops inhaling. It’s a classical clinical test for gallbladder inflammation.

Grey Turner's sign, Cullen's sign and McBurney's sign are important clinical indicators used in diagnosing serious abdominal conditions.

Grey Turner's sign presents as a bluish discoloration or bruising on the flanks, usually caused by retroperitoneal hemorrhage. It is commonly associated with severe acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis, ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, or abdominal trauma. The presence of this sign typically indicates internal bleeding and is a marker of poor prognosis.

Cullen's sign, on the other hand, appears as a bluish discoloration around the umbilicus. It suggests intraperitoneal bleeding and may be seen in cases of hemorrhagic pancreatitis, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, or blunt abdominal trauma. Both Cullen's and Grey Turner's signs point to internal bleeding but differ in their anatomical locations and depth of bleeding.

McBurney's sign refers to tenderness at McBurney’s point, which lies one-third the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus on the right side. It is a classic sign of acute appendicitis, often accompanied by rebound tenderness and muscular guarding. Recognizing these signs during physical examination is crucial for timely diagnosis and urgent surgical intervention in life-threatening abdominal emergencies.

(Ref: Bailey and Love's)
১৩.
A surgical patient with excessive bleeding may need which preoperative lab test?
  1. Coagulation profile
  2. LFT
  3. ESR
  4. Blood urea
ব্যাখ্যা
Coagulation Profile 
Before surgery, it's crucial to assess bleeding risk. Coagulation profile (PT, aPTT, INR) detects clotting abnormalities, especially in patients with liver disease, bleeding disorders, or on anticoagulants. Delay in checking this can lead to excessive surgical bleeding.

(Ref: Clinical surgery by Makkhan Lal)
১৪.
IgA mainly protects the:
  1. Lymph nodes
  2. Mucosal surfaces
  3. Bloodstream
  4. Skin
ব্যাখ্যা
IgA mainly protects the  Mucosal surfaces. Secretory IgA is abundant in external secretions such as saliva, tears, mucus and breast milk. It plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity by preventing microbial adherence to mucosal surfaces, neutralizing toxins and pathogens before they enter the bloodstream. It forms the first line of defense in the respiratory, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts.

(Ref:Lange Microbiology)
 
১৫.
The virus responsible for AIDS is classified as a:
  1. Herpes virus
  2. Retro virus
  3. Pox virus
  4. Picorna virus
ব্যাখ্যা
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is responsible for AIDS. It is an enveloped RNA virus of the Retroviridae family. It uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into DNA, which integrates into the host genome. HIV specifically infects and depletes CD4+ T lymphocytes, leading to immunodeficiency and opportunistic infections.

(Ref:Lange Microbiology)
১৬.
Koplik spots are a feature of:
  1. Chickenpox
  2. Mumps
  3. Measles
  4. Rubella
ব্যাখ্যা
Koplik spots are a feature of Measles. Measles, caused by a paramyxovirus, is characterized by a prodrome of fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis, followed by a maculopapular rash. Koplik spots are bluishwhite lesions with a red base found on the buccal mucosa, appearing 1–2 days before the rash. They are pathognomonic for measles.

(Ref: Lange Microbiology)
১৭.
A 35year old with submandibular swelling and fever is most likely suffering from:
  1. Mumps
  2. Cellulitis
  3. Periapical abscess
  4. Ludwig’s angina
ব্যাখ্যা
Ludwig’s Angina 
This is a severe, rapidly spreading cellulitis of the submandibular and sublingual spaces, often arising from a dental infection. It can compromise the airway and requires emergency IV antibiotics and sometimes intubation. Dental origin is common; good oral hygiene and early intervention prevent complications.

(Ref: Cawson)
১৮.
Which of the following is the best initial imaging in intestinal obstruction?
  1. Chest Xray
  2. CT scan
  3. USG
  4. Xray abdomen (erect)
ব্যাখ্যা
Xray Abdomen in Intestinal Obstruction 
In suspected intestinal obstruction, erect abdominal Xray is the most useful initial imaging. It shows dilated bowel loops and airfluid levels, suggestive of obstruction. CT scan provides more detail, but Xray is faster and useful in emergency settings.

(Ref: Clinical surgery Makkhan Lal)
১৯.
Which hepatitis virus spreads by the fecal-Oral route?
  1. Hepatitis A
  2. Hepatitis D
  3. Hepatitis C
  4. Hepatitis B
ব্যাখ্যা
Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is a nonenveloped RNA virus transmitted through contaminated food or water. It causes acute, selflimiting hepatitis and does not result in chronic infection. It is preventable through vaccination and good sanitation practices.

Virus               Main Route of Transmission                Notes
HBV                Parenteral, sexual, perinatal                    Vaccine available
HCV                Parenteral                                                No vaccine; common in IV drug users
HDV                Same as HBV                                           Needs HBV for infection
HEV                 Fecal-oral                                                Risky during pregnancy; waterborne outbreaks



                                                                                                                                                                                  (Ref: Lange Microbiology)
২০.
What is the treatment of choice in anaphylaxis?
  1. Hydrocortisone
  2. Chlorpheniramine
  3. Epinephrine IM
  4. Oxygen
ব্যাখ্যা
The firstline treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular epinephrine, which reverses airway edema, hypotension and shock. Antihistamines and steroids are adjunctive but not lifesaving in the acute phase. Delay in epinephrine administration can be fatal, so it should be administered promptly into the lateral thigh.

(Ref: Neelima+Odell)
 
২১.
A child presents with spontaneous bleeding and petechiae. Platelet count is normal. Which is the likely diagnosis?
  1. Hemophilia
  2. ITP
  3. Scurvy
  4. Von Willebrand disease
ব্যাখ্যা
Hemophilia A or B presents with normal platelet count but defective clotting factors, leading to spontaneous bleeding and petechiae.
Unlike ITP, the platelet count is normal. Hemarthrosis (joint bleeding) is common in severe cases. Bleeding may occur after minor trauma, requiring factor replacement therapy.

(Ref: Davidson+Khaleque)
২২.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:
  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgE
ব্যাখ্যা
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE. Type I hypersensitivity, also known as immediate hypersensitivity, involves the interaction of allergens with IgE antibodies bound to Fc receptors on mast cells and basophils. Upon reexposure to the same allergen, crosslinking of surfacebound IgE triggers the release of histamine, prostaglandins and leukotrienes, leading to symptoms like urticaria, bronchospasm and anaphylaxis. Examples include allergic rhinitis, asthma and food allergies.

(Ref: Lange Microbiology)
২৩.
A trauma patient with absent breath sounds on one side and tracheal deviation likely has:
  1. Pleural effusion
  2. Tension pneumothorax
  3. Hemothorax
  4. Pneumonia
ব্যাখ্যা
Tension Pneumothorax 
A trauma patient with absent breath sounds on one side, hypotension and tracheal deviation likely has tension pneumothorax. Air trapped in the pleural space compresses the lung and mediastinum. Immediate decompression with needle thoracostomy followed by chest tube insertion is lifesaving.

 (Ref: Davidson+Harrison)
২৪.
Which of the following is a red flag sign for syncope requiring emergency referral?
  1. Mild headache afterward
  2. Episode while laughing
  3. Palpitations and chest pain during episode
  4. Syncopal episode after prolonged standing
ব্যাখ্যা
Red Flag for Syncope is Palpitations and chest pain during episode. Palpitations and chest pain with syncope raise concern for cardiac causes (arrhythmia, MI), which can be lifethreatening. This is a red flag requiring ECG and cardiac evaluation. Reflex or vasovagal syncope, on the other hand, is usually benign and selflimiting.

(Ref: Davidson)
২৫.
Enteric fever is caused by:
  1. Shigella dysenteriae
  2. Salmonella typhi
  3. Vibrio cholerae
  4. E. coli
ব্যাখ্যা
Enteric fever
Salmonella typhi is a Gramnegative bacillus that causes typhoid (enteric) fever. It is transmitted through contaminated food and water. After ingestion, the bacteria penetrate the intestinal mucosa, survive within macrophages and disseminate systemically.
Clinical features include-
-prolonged stepladder fever
-abdominal pain, relative bradycardia
-and rose spots on the trunk.
Complications include intestinal perforation and hemorrhage.
(Ref: Lange Microbiology)

 
২৬.
High grade fever, retro orbital pain, weakness are the prominent features of -
  1. Rheumatic fever
  2. Kala- Azar
  3. Dengue fever
  4. Infective endocardititis
ব্যাখ্যা
C/F of dengue fever :
-High grade fever
-Gum bleeding
-petechiae
-retro orbital  pain
-malaise
-weakness

Alarming sign
-plural effusion
-plasma leakage
-shock etc

(Ref- Davidson)
২৭.
A burn patient with dry leathery eschar and insensate skin likely has:
  1. Full thickness burn
  2. Deep partial thickness burn
  3. Partial thickness burn
  4. Superficial burn
ব্যাখ্যা
Full Thickness Burn 
Full thickness (third degree) burns destroy all skin layers, appearing dry, leathery and painless due to nerve destruction. Unlike partial thickness burns, they do not blanch or heal spontaneously and require skin grafting. Early fluid resuscitation and infection control are essential in management.

(Ref: Bailey & Love's)
২৮.
Best investigation to early detect gallstones in acute cholecystitis is-
  1. CT abdomen
  2. USG abdomen
  3. MRI
  4. Chest Xray
ব্যাখ্যা
USG Abdomen in Cholecystitis
Ultrasound is the firstline investigation in suspected cholecystitis. It detects gallstones, gallbladder wall thickening and a positive sonographic Murphy's sign. It's quick, safe and noninvasive.
CT is used only when complications are suspected or diagnosis is unclear.
(Ref: NIH guideline)

 
২৯.
Oral candidiasis is caused by:
  1. Histoplasma
  2. Candida mutans
  3. Aspergillus
  4. None
ব্যাখ্যা
Oral candidiasis is caused by  Candida albicans. C. albicans is a yeastlike fungus that can overgrow in the oral cavity, especially in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., HIV, diabetes, steroid use). Oral candidiasis (thrush) presents as white, curdlike plaques on the tongue and buccal mucosa that can be scraped off, revealing erythematous mucosa. Diagnosis is confirmed by KOH preparation or fungal culture.

(Ref: Lange Microbiology)

 
৩০.
Which neurological scale is used to assess unconscious patients?
  1. Glasgow Coma Scale
  2. SOFA Score
  3. APACHE Score
  4. Mallampati Score
ব্যাখ্যা
 Glasgow Coma Scale 
GCS is used to assess the consciousness level of a patient based on eyeopening, verbal response and motor response. The score ranges from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully alert). It is critical in trauma, stroke or any altered mental status for clinical monitoring and prognosis.

(Ref: Macleod clinical examination)
৩১.
An elderly diabetic patient presents with foul smelling, thick sputum and chronic cough. Best empirical treatment?
  1. Ceftriaxone
  2. Metronidazole
  3. Clarithromycin
  4. Rifampicin
ব্যাখ্যা
A patient with foulsmelling sputum, chronic cough and risk factors like smoking or aspiration likely has a lung abscess, often caused by anaerobic bacteria. Metronidazole is the preferred empirical treatment due to its anaerobic coverage. Diagnosis is supported by imaging.

(Ref: Katzung+Davidson)
৩২.
A diabetic patient develops dry mouth and poor wound healing. Which of the following is most related?
  1. Dehydration
  2. Oral candidiasis
  3. Gingivitis
  4. Stomatitis
ব্যাখ্যা
Oral Candidiasis in Diabetes -
Poorly controlled diabetes leads to immunosuppression and xerostomia, which predispose to fungal infections like oral candidiasis. These patients also exhibit delayed wound healing and burning mouth syndrome. Good glycemic control, antifungals and proper oral hygiene help to manage this symptoms.

(Ref-Odell)
৩৩.
Which of the following is Acid-fast positive?
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  4. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
ব্যাখ্যা
Acidfast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, have a high content of mycolic acid in their cell walls, which makes them resistant to decolorization with acidalcohol after staining with carbol fuchsin. This unique property is exploited in ZiehlNeelsen staining. The thick, waxy cell wall also makes them resistant to many antibiotics and desiccation. This acidfast nature helps differentiate M. tuberculosis from nonacidfast bacteria in sputum samples of suspected tuberculosis patients.

(Ref: Lange Microbiology)
৩৪.
Gum bleeding, corkscrew hairs and swollen joints in a child suggest:
  1. Hemophilia
  2. Leukemia
  3. Scurvy
  4. Dengue
ব্যাখ্যা
Scurvy is caused by vitamin C deficiency, impairing collagen synthesis.
Classic signs include-
-Gum bleeding
-corkscrew hairs
-perifollicular hemorrhages and
-pseudoparalysis in children due to subperiosteal bleeding.

Dental findings include-
-Gum swelling
-spongy gums and
-tooth loss.
Treatment is oral vitamin C supplementation


(Ref- Cawson+Davidson)

৩৫.
A patient presenting with fever and weight loss.Differential diagnosis of this patient may be:
  1. Tuberculosis
  2. HIV wasting
  3. Disseminated mycoses
  4. All correct
ব্যাখ্যা
Weight loss and fever seen in following
conditions :
1.Tuberculosis 
2.MAC
3.Disseminated mycoses
4.NHL
5.CMV
6.HIV wasting

(Ref: Davidson, 24E) 
৩৬.
During depolarization, which one happens first?
  1. K⁺ channels open
  2. Na⁺ influx
  3. Na⁺/K⁺ pump reverses
  4. Cl⁻ channels open
ব্যাখ্যা
Depolarization begins with the opening of voltage‑gated Na⁺ channels, causing Na⁺ influx. This influx rapidly makes the cell interior more positive. Voltage‑gated K⁺ channels open later to restore the negative potential.
৩৭.
Insulin:
  1. Raises blood glucose
  2. Stimulates glycogen breakdown
  3. Increases GLUT-4 insertion into muscle/fat cell membranes
  4. Is secreted by α-cells of the pancreas
ব্যাখ্যা
Insulin, released from β-cells, promotes GLUT‑4 insertion in muscle and adipose tissue to increase glucose uptake (thus lowering blood glucose). It also stimulates glycogen synthesis and suppresses gluconeogenesis.
৩৮.
To correct acidosis, the kidneys:
  1. Reabsorb HCO₃⁻ and secrete H⁺
  2. Secrete HCO₃⁻
  3. Reduce ammonium excretion
  4. Replace Cl⁻ with HCO₃⁻
ব্যাখ্যা
To correct acidosis, the kidneys reabsorb filtered HCO₃⁻ and actively secrete H⁺. These H⁺ ions bind with filterable buffers (e.g., phosphate, ammonia) and are excreted—thus regenerating bicarbonate and maintaining pH.
৩৯.
The “lub-dub” heart sounds correspond to:
  1. Aortic and pulmonary valve closures
  2. AV valves (lub) and semilunar valves (dub)
  3. Mitral valve (lub) and tricuspid valve (dub)
  4. Systole and diastole phases
ব্যাখ্যা
“Lub” is the closure of AV valves (mitral/tricuspid) during ventricular contraction;
“dub” is closure of semilunar valves (aortic/pulmonary) during ventricular relaxation.
৪০.
Sympathetic activation causes:
  1. Pupil constriction
  2. Bronchodilation
  3. Increased gut motility
  4. Decreased heart rate
ব্যাখ্যা
Sympathetic (“fight or flight”) stimulation causes bronchodilation, increased HR, pupillary dilation, and reduced GI motility—opposite of parasympathetic.
৪১.
Glucagon primarily:
  1. Stimulates glycogenesis
  2. Lowers blood glucose
  3. Activates adenylate cyclase via Gs receptor
  4. Is secreted during fed state
ব্যাখ্যা
Glucagon binds Gs-protein–coupled receptors, activating adenylate cyclase → cAMP → PKA, stimulating gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis to raise blood glucose.
৪২.
Aldosterone increases:
  1. K⁺ secretion in collecting duct
  2. Na⁺ secretion
  3. Water reabsorption in PCT
  4. Uric acid excretion
ব্যাখ্যা
Aldosterone increases Na⁺ reabsorption (via ENaC) and K⁺ secretion in the principal cells of the late DCT and collecting duct, helping regulate blood pressure and serum K⁺.
৪৩.
Cushing’s disease involves:
  1. Pituitary ACTH overproduction
  2. Adrenal cortisol deficiency
  3. Hypothalamic CRH underproduction
  4. Thyroid hormone excess
ব্যাখ্যা
This is due to a pituitary adenoma producing excess ACTH, which overstimulates the adrenal cortex → excess cortisol. Differs from Cushing's syndrome, which could be due to adrenal tumors or exogenous steroids.
৪৪.
ACE inhibitors primarily:
  1. Lower angiotensin II → vasodilation
  2. Increase aldosterone
  3. Increase bradykinin degradation
  4. Block β-receptors
ব্যাখ্যা
ACE inhibitors block conversion of Ang I to Ang II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Less Ang II = vasodilation + ↓ aldosterone = lower BP. They also ↑ bradykinin (→ dry cough).
৪৫.
Pain & temperature ascend via:
  1. Dorsal column–medial lemniscal
  2. Spinothalamic tract
  3. Corticospinal tract
  4. Spinocerebellar tract
ব্যাখ্যা
Pain and temperature signals cross over in the spinal cord shortly after entering and ascend via the anterolateral (spinothalamic) tract to the thalamus, then sensory cortex.
৪৬.
Acute inflammation differs from chronic inflammation because it:
  1. Is mediated predominantly by lymphocytes and macrophages
  2. Is characterized by tissue destruction and fibrosis
  3. Occurs rapidly and involves exudation of fluid and neutrophil infiltration
  4. Is always asymptomatic
ব্যাখ্যা
Acute inflammation develops within minutes to days, with plasma exudation and predominantly neutrophils; chronic inflammation is slower and marked by lymphocytes, macrophages, and tissue remodeling.

SEE Table 2.4 Differences between Acute and Chronic Inflammation 
(Practical Pathology and Microbiology by Prof. K.A. Khaleque)
৪৭.
Autoclaving at 121 °C, 15 psi for 15 minutes achieves sterilization by:
  1. Denaturing proteins and disrupting membranes with moist heat
  2. Fixing cells chemically
  3. Oxidizing cellular components
  4. Dehydration
ব্যাখ্যা
Autoclave 

An autoclave is a sterilization device that uses steam under pressure to kill microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and spores. It is widely used in medical, dental, and laboratory settings.

Working Principle:
Steam at high temperature (usually 121°C at 15 psi) is used for 15–30 minutes to sterilize instruments. Some autoclaves use 134°C for faster cycles.

Uses:
- Sterilizing surgical and dental instruments
- Sterilizing gloves, gauze, syringes
- Sterilizing lab media and certain liquids

Important Notes:
- Instruments must be cleaned before sterilization.
- Biological indicators (like spore tests) are used to ensure effectiveness of sterilization.
- Autoclaves must be regularly maintained and monitored.
৪৮.
Passive immunity differs from active immunity in that:
  1. Passive immunity induces long-term immunologic memory
  2. Passive immunity relies on the host producing its own antibodies
  3. Passive immunity provides immediate but short-lived protection via transferred antibodies
  4. Passive immunity is generated via vaccines
ব্যাখ্যা
Passive immunity involves transferred antibodies (e.g., IgG from maternal-fetal transfer), providing immediate but temporary defense.

See Table 61.3
(Practical Pathology and Microbiology by Prof. K.A. Khaleque)
৪৯.
A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm³ in an HIV-positive patient is strongly associated with:
  1. Herpes labialis
  2. Hairy leukoplakia and oral candidiasis
  3. Aphthous ulcers
  4. Traumatic ulcerations
ব্যাখ্যা
At CD4 <200/mm³, opportunistic infections such as oral candidiasis and hairy leukoplakia (EBV-related) are common.
৫০.
A benign tumor differs from a malignant one in that it:
  1. Invades adjacent tissue
  2. Metastasizes
  3. Is well-differentiated and lacks invasiveness
  4. Usually shows a high mitotic index
ব্যাখ্যা
Benign tumors are well-differentiated, grow slowly, and remain localized; malignant tumors invade and often metastasize.

See Table 6.2
(Practical Pathology and Microbiology by Prof. K.A. Khaleque)
৫১.
Which type of necrosis is characteristically seen in infarcts of solid organs like the heart and kidneys?
  1. Liquefactive
  2. Caseous
  3. Fat
  4. Coagulative
ব্যাখ্যা
Coagulative necrosis preserves tissue architecture temporarily and is commonly seen in hypoxic injury, especially in solid organs.

It results from the denaturation of structural proteins and enzymes, which blocks proteolysis of the dead cells. Eventually, the necrotic cells are removed by phagocytosis.

Causes:
Most commonly caused by ischemia (loss of blood supply) in solid organs like the heart, kidney, and spleen.

Exception: Ischemia in the brain leads to liquefactive necrosis, not coagulative.
৫২.
Septic shock differs from hypovolemic shock by:
  1. Increased cardiac output early on
  2. Cold, clammy skin
  3. Reduced systemic vascular resistance
  4. A and C both
ব্যাখ্যা
Septic shock often presents with vasodilation (↓SVR) and hyperdynamic circulation initially.
৫৩.
The most radiosensitive tissue is:
  1. Brain
  2. Skeletal muscle
  3. Bone marrow
  4. Pancreas
ব্যাখ্যা
Bone marrow, due to its high mitotic activity, is highly sensitive to ionizing radiation.
In radiation therapy, radiosensitive tissues are more prone to damage.
Protecting bone marrow, gonads, and GI tract is a major concern.
Fractionated doses help minimize damage to normal radiosensitive tissues.
৫৪.
Which of the following best represents the normal cellular response to trauma?
  1. Necrosis without inflammation
  2. Apoptosis followed by degeneration
  3. Inflammation followed by healing via regeneration or fibrosis
  4. Immediate granulation tissue formation
ব্যাখ্যা
Trauma triggers acute inflammation, then healing occurs via regeneration (if possible) or fibrosis.
৫৫.
Secretory diarrhea, such as that caused by Vibrio cholerae, is characterized by:
  1. Blood and mucus in stool
  2. Increased active secretion and decreased absorption
  3. Inflammatory exudate
  4. Osmotic imbalance
ব্যাখ্যা
Secretory diarrhea results from toxins increasing Cl⁻ secretion and water follows passively.

Blood and mucus in stool
-Typical of inflammatory/invasive diarrhea (e.g., Shigella, Entamoeba histolytica)

 Inflammatory exudate
- Seen in invasive bacterial infections causing mucosal ulceration (e.g., Salmonella, Shigella)

Osmotic imbalance
- Typical of osmotic diarrhea (e.g., lactose intolerance, sorbitol overuse) – stool osmolar gap is increased.
৫৬.
Which of the following is not a part of hemoglobin molecule:
  1. Pyrrole rings
  2. Histidine
  3. Vinyl groups
  4. Ferric ions
ব্যাখ্যা
Ferric (Fe³⁺) ions are seen in methemoglobin.
Hemoglobin is a complex molecule composed of a heme group and globin chains. The heme part contains four pyrrole rings arranged in a porphyrin structure, with side chains like vinyl groups, and a centrally located ferrous ion (Fe²⁺) that binds oxygen. The globin part includes important amino acids like histidine, which help stabilize the heme and assist in oxygen binding. However, ferric ions (Fe³⁺) are not a normal component of functional hemoglobin; when iron is oxidized to the ferric state, it forms methemoglobin, which cannot carry oxygen effectively. Therefore, ferric ions are not considered part of a normal hemoglobin molecule.
৫৭.
Translation occurs at:
  1. Centrosome
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Nucleus
  4. Ribosome
ব্যাখ্যা
Translation is the process by which proteins are synthesized from messenger RNA (mRNA). This process occurs in the ribosomes, which can be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Ribosomes read the mRNA sequence and, with the help of transfer RNA (tRNA), assemble amino acids in the correct order to form a polypeptide chain. While the nucleus is where transcription (mRNA synthesis) occurs, and mitochondria have their own ribosomes for limited protein synthesis, the main site of translation in all cells is the ribosome.
৫৮.
Plasma half life gives the idea about All except
  1. duration of drag action
  2. amount of drug to be administrated
  3. frequency of drug administration
  4. potency of drug
ব্যাখ্যা
Plasma half life refers to the time required for the concentration of a drug in the bloodstream to reduce to half its original value. It provides important information about the duration of drug action, as a drug with a longer half-life tends to stay in the body longer, thereby prolonging its effect. It also helps determine the frequency of drug administration—drugs with a short half-life may need to be given more frequently to maintain therapeutic levels. In some cases, plasma half-life is used to estimate the amount of drug to be administered, particularly in calculating loading and maintenance doses. However, potency is not related to half-life; it is a pharmacodynamic concept that refers to the amount of drug needed to produce a desired therapeutic effect.
৫৯.
Which is true about drug with high plasma protein binding capacity
  1. long duration of action
  2. Less drug interaction
  3. increase volume of distribution
  4. increase rate of excretion
ব্যাখ্যা
Drugs with high plasma protein binding capacity in pharmacology typically exhibit characteristics such as a prolonged duration of action, delayed onset of action, and reduced drug clearance. They are also more likely to be displaced from binding sites by other drugs, potentially leading to increased free drug concentrations and altered pharmacological effects.  
1. Prolonged Duration of Action:
High protein binding reduces the amount of free drug available to reach the site of action, but it also means the drug is less readily eliminated.
The bound drug acts as a reservoir, slowly releasing free drug over time, thus extending the drug's duration of effect.
This can be beneficial for drugs where a sustained effect is desired, but it also means that the onset of action may be delayed.  
2. Delayed Onset of Action:
Due to the extensive binding to plasma proteins, a smaller fraction of the drug is available to distribute to the tissues and exert its pharmacological effect initially.
This delay in reaching the target site can result in a delayed onset of action compared to drugs with lower protein binding.  
3. Reduced Drug Clearance:
Only the unbound (free) drug can be eliminated from the body by the kidneys or liver.
Since a large portion of the drug is bound to plasma proteins, the overall clearance of the drug from the body is reduced, leading to a longer half-life.  
4. Increased Risk of Drug Interactions:
If two drugs highly bound to the same plasma protein are administered together, they can compete for the binding sites.
This competition can lead to displacement of one drug by the other, resulting in a higher concentration of the displaced drug in the free form.
This increased free drug concentration can lead to exaggerated pharmacological effects, including toxicity.  
5. Limited Distribution:
The large size of the drug-protein complex hinders its ability to cross cell membranes and distribute into tissues, particularly those with limited blood supply or barriers like the brain.
This can result in the drug being primarily confined to the vascular compartment. 
৬০.
False about adrenaline
  1. Can cross blood brain barrier
  2. Stabilizes mast cell membrane
  3. Can be used in in cardiogenic shock
  4. Can be used along with lidocaine
ব্যাখ্যা
Adrenaline is a first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, an IgE-mediated, severe allergic reaction caused by the release of mediators from mast cells that have been previously sensitised to a specific allergen
৬১.
Paracetamol
  1. produce analgesia
  2. Causes platelet aggregation
  3. Anti inflammatory
  4. Produce Rye Syndrome
ব্যাখ্যা
paracetamol is a weaker analgesic drug when compared to NSAIDs or the selective COX-2 inhibitors; however, it is often preferred due to its better tolerance. Regardless of its similarities to NSAIDs, its mechanism of action was formerly uncertain, although now it is commonly accepted that it inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes through metabolism by utilizing the peroxidase function of aforementioned isoenzymes.

This in turn inhibits the formation of phenoxyl radicals from a tyrosine residue that is fundamental for COX-1 and COX-2 cyclooxygenase activity, as well as prostaglandin synthesis. Paracetamol often seems to have specific COX-2 selectivity, demonstrated by its satisfactory gastrointestinal tolerance and poor anti-platelet activity.

Furthermore, paracetamol selectively inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins and related factors when low levels of peroxides and arachidonic acid are present; conversely, there is little activity at ample levels of these compounds. The end-result is the inability of paracetamol to suppress severe inflammation as occurs in acute gout and rheumatoid arthritis, but satisfactory activity in counteracting milder inflammation processes, mild to moderate pain, and for relieving fever.
৬২.
Tetracycline is
  1. Bacteriostatic
  2. Has less side effect
  3. Can be given simultaneously with gentamycin
  4. Can be given simultaneously with cephalosporins
ব্যাখ্যা
Mechanism of Action:
Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic, meaning it inhibits bacterial growth rather than directly killing bacteria.
It achieves this by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, preventing transfer RNA (tRNA) from attaching to the ribosome and halting protein synthesis. This process is reversible.  
Indications (Uses):
Tetracycline is used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, including:Respiratory tract infections (e.g., pneumonia).
Skin infections.
Urinary tract infections.
Certain sexually transmitted infections (e.g., chlamydia).
Infections spread by ticks, lice, mites, and infected animals.
Acne (often in combination with other medications).
Plague and tularemia (bioterrorism threats).
Certain types of food poisoning.
Anthrax (bioterrorism threat).
It's also used as a sclerosing agent for pleural and pericardial effusions.  
Specific bacterial infections it is effective against:  
Gram-positive: Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium spp.
Gram-negative: Shigella spp, Escherichia coli, Rickettsia spp, Borrelia burgdorferi, Helicobacter pylori, Neisseria meningitidis.
Atypical bacteria: Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Vibrio cholerae, Francisella tularensis.
Important Considerations:
Antibiotic resistance:
Overuse of tetracycline can lead to bacterial resistance, making it less effective in the future. It's crucial to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment.  
Side effects:
Tetracyclines can cause various side effects, including:Tooth discoloration (in children and during pregnancy).  
Sensitivity to sunlight.  
Gastrointestinal issues (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea).  
Esophageal irritation (if not taken with enough water or upright after taking).  
Drug interactions:
Tetracyclines can interact with other medications and substances, including:Calcium-containing products (dairy, antacids), iron, and other minerals, as these can reduce absorption.  
Oral contraceptives (may reduce effectiveness).  
Some medications can affect how tetracyclines are processed by the body.  
Contraindications:
Tetracyclines are generally not recommended for pregnant women or children under 8 due to potential side effects.
৬৩.
Antibacterial agent that doesn’t create superinfection
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Chehalosporins
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. Penicillin G
ব্যাখ্যা
Tetracycline,  chephalosporins,  amoxicilin,  aminoglycosides, chloramphenical causes super infection
৬৪.
Metronidazole
  1. Is used to control pain
  2. Is anti protozoal drug
  3. Active Against aerobic organism
  4. Is used in aphthus ulcer
ব্যাখ্যা
Metronidazole is a commonly used antibiotic, belonging to the nitroimidazole class of antibiotics. It is frequently used to treat gastrointestinal infections as well as trichomoniasis and giardiasis, and amebiasis which are parasitic infections.
৬৫.
Antibiotic safe in renal failuure
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Gentamicin
  3. Doxycycline
  4. Cephalexin
ব্যাখ্যা
Azithromycine and doxycycline consider as safe for renal failuure patients 
৬৬.
Probiotics means
  1. Precursor of antibiotics
  2. Prokaryotic antibiotics
  3. Agents of bio therapy that contain live bacteria
  4. Chemical substance
ব্যাখ্যা
Probiotics refer to the therapeutic use of live microorganisms, typically bacteria or yeast, to improve host health, particularly by influencing the gut microbiota. They are often used as dietary supplements or incorporated into functional foods to help restore or maintain a healthy balance of microorganisms in the digestive tract.
৬৭.
Anti-fungal drug
  1. Co-trimoxazole
  2. Metformin
  3. Fluconazole
  4. Flucloxacilline
ব্যাখ্যা
Common antifungal drugs in pharmacology include azoles like fluconazole, itraconazole, and ketoconazole, as well as the allylamine terbinafine and echinocandins like caspofungin. Other notable antifungals include polyenes like amphotericin B and nystatin and the antimetabolite flucytosine.
৬৮.
Histamine causes
  1. bronchodilation
  2. Vasodilation
  3. Negative chronotropic action
  4. Reduced secretion of intrinsic factor
ব্যাখ্যা
histamine's effects are mediated through four types of histamine receptors (H1, H2, H3, and H4), each with distinct roles and locations within the body. Histamine is a crucial player in various physiological processes, including allergic and inflammatory responses, gastric acid secretion, and neurotransmission.  
Effects of Histamine through Different Receptors:
H1 receptors:
These receptors are found in smooth muscle, endothelial cells, and the brain. Activation of H1 receptors leads to:Smooth muscle contraction: This can cause bronchoconstriction (narrowing of airways) and gastrointestinal tract contractions.  
Increased vascular permeability: This leads to fluid leakage from capillaries, contributing to edema (swelling) and redness.  
Itching (pruritus): Histamine stimulates sensory nerve endings, causing the sensation of itching.  
Vasodilation: H1 receptor activation also triggers the release of nitric oxide, causing blood vessels to relax and widen, contributing to a decrease in blood pressure.  
H2 receptors:
Primarily found in the stomach's parietal cells, heart, and some blood vessels, H2 receptors play a significant role in:Gastric acid secretion: Histamine stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.  
Vasodilation: Similar to H1 receptors, H2 receptor activation can also cause vasodilation.  
Increased heart rate: Histamine can increase heart rate through H2 receptors.  
H3 receptors:
Located on nerve terminals in the central nervous system, H3 receptors act as autoreceptors (they regulate histamine release) and also affect other neurotransmitters like dopamine, serotonin, and acetylcholine. Their activation can:  
Inhibit neurotransmitter release: H3 receptors can reduce the release of other neurotransmitters, modulating neuronal activity.  
Influence cognitive functions: By regulating neurotransmitter release, H3 receptors are implicated in attention, vigilance, and other cognitive processes.  
H4 receptors:
These receptors are primarily found on immune cells like mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils. Their activation:Promotes chemotaxis: H4 receptors guide immune cells to sites of inflammation.  
Modulates immune responses: They can affect the production of inflammatory cytokines.
৬৯.
False for Nor Adrenaline
  1. Raise systolic blood pressure
  2. Lower diastolic pressure
  3. Produces bradycardia
  4. Produce antagonistic action
ব্যাখ্যা
Increase blood pressure both systolic and diastolic both and increase peripheral resistance
৭০.
Beta are useful in all except
  1. Heart failure
  2. Bronchial asthma
  3. Angina pectoris
  4. Myocardial infraction
ব্যাখ্যা
Indication of beta blocker 
Heart failure 
Angina
Hypertension 
Myocardial infraction 
Hypothyroidism 
Glaucoma 
৭১.
Omeprazole
  1. Irreversibly inhabit Na/k ATPase
  2. Accelerate the gastric emptying
  3. Blackens the tongue
  4. Is a prodrug
ব্যাখ্যা
Omeprazole is a prodrug, meaning it is an inactive compound that is converted into an active drug within the body. In the case of omeprazole, it is converted to its active form, a sulfonamide, in the acidic environment of the stomach's parietal cells. This activated form then binds to and inhibits the proton pump (H+, K+-ATPase), effectively reducing gastric acid secretion. 
Mechanism of Action:
Omeprazole is a substituted benzimidazole that acts as a proton pump inhibitor.  
It specifically targets and inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme system in the parietal cells of the stomach.  
This enzyme is crucial for the final step of acid production, so inhibiting it effectively reduces gastric acid secretion.  
The effects of omeprazole are relatively long-lasting, even though its half-life is short, because it preferentially concentrates in parietal cells and forms a covalent bond with the H+/K+ ATPase, leading to irreversible inhibition.
৭২.
Drug that doesn’t reduce gastric acid secretion
  1. Omeprazole ranitidine
  2. Ranitidine
  3. Antacid
  4. Pantoprazole
ব্যাখ্যা
Antacid act as acid neutralizer.Antacids are drugs that neutralize existing gastric acid in the stomach but do not reduce its secretion. In contrast, omeprazole and pantoprazole are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) that block the H⁺/K⁺-ATPase enzyme, reducing acid secretion. Ranitidine is an H₂ receptor blocker that also decreases acid production by inhibiting histamine action on parietal cells. Therefore, while these other drugs reduce gastric acid secretion, antacids only act by neutralizing the acid already present, not by affecting its production.
৭৩.
Pre anesthetic drug is
  1. Atropine
  2. Lignocaine
  3. Tranexamic acid
  4. Propanolol
ব্যাখ্যা
Preanesthetic drugs, also known as premedicants, are medications administered before general anesthesia to prepare a patient for the procedure and enhance the anesthetic experience. These drugs aim to reduce anxiety, provide sedation, minimize secretions, manage pain, and potentially reduce the required dose of general anesthetic.  
Commonly used preanesthetic drugs include:
Anticholinergics: Like atropine and glycopyrrolate, they reduce secretions and can help prevent bradycardia.
Alpha-2 agonists: Drugs like xylazine, detomidine, and medetomidine provide sedation and analgesia.
Benzodiazepines: Diazepam and midazolam are used for sedation and anxiolysis.
Opioids: Morphine, fentanyl, and others provide analgesia.
Phenothiazines: Acepromazine is a tranquilizer used for sedation.
৭৪.
Local anesthesia exerts their effects by
  1. Increasing k+ conduction
  2. Blocking Na channels
  3. Inhibiting Na+ k+ ATPase
  4. All
ব্যাখ্যা
The primary mode of action is blockade of the fast voltage‐gated sodium channels. To achieve this effect, the unionised fraction of the drug crosses the lipid bilayer of the axoplasm and blocks the channel intracellularly.
৭৫.
Local anesthesia which is not amide type
  1. Bupivacaine
  2. Procine
  3. Lignocaine
  4. Mepivacaine
ব্যাখ্যা
Common examples include lidocaine, bupivacaine, and ropivacaine. These drugs are characterized by an amide bond in their chemical structure, distinguishing them from ester-type local anesthetics. 
৭৬.
Adrenaline in local anesthetic
  1. increase blood pressure
  2. increase the duration of action
  3. increase the blood flow
  4. increase the Toxicity
ব্যাখ্যা
Adrenaline, when added to local anesthetic solutions, primarily works by causing vasoconstriction, which constricts blood vessels. This action reduces blood flow to the injection site, leading to slower absorption of the local anesthetic into the bloodstream. This slower absorption has several beneficial effects: it prolongs the duration of the anesthetic effect at the site, increases the depth of anesthesia, and decreases the risk of systemic toxicity by reducing the peak plasma concentration of the local anesthetic. Additionally, the vasoconstriction helps minimize bleeding at the surgical site. 
৭৭.
NSAID is
  1. Acetaminophen
  2. Colchicine
  3. Azathioprine
  4. Indomethacin
ব্যাখ্যা
NSAIDs (Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs) are a class of medications used to reduce pain, inflammation, and fever. They achieve this by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, which are crucial in producing prostaglandins, the chemical messengers responsible for these inflammatory responses
The main types of NSAIDs include:

ibuprofen
naproxen
diclofenac
celecoxib
mefenamic acid
etoricoxib
indomethacin
৭৮.
Topically used anesthetic
  1. Xylocaine
  2. Benzocaine
  3. Articaine
  4. Dyclonine
ব্যাখ্যা
Tropically used anesthetic 
Tetracaine 
Lignocaine 
Benzocaine 
Cocaine
৭৯.
Proton pump inhibitor
  1. Sucralfate
  2. Famotidine
  3. Pantoprazole
  4. Mosoprostol
ব্যাখ্যা
pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a class of medications that effectively reduce the production of stomach acid by irreversibly blocking the proton pump (H+/K+ ATPase) in the parietal cells of the stomach. This action helps to heal ulcers, manage gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and eradicate Helicobacter pylori
Common PPIs include omeprazole, esomeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole, and rabeprazole
৮০.
Indication of adrenaline
  1. Anaphylactic shock
  2. Ischaemic shock
  3. Hypertension
  4. Cardiogenic shock
ব্যাখ্যা
Pharmacology of adrenalineAdrenaline is a first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, an IgE-mediated, severe allergic reaction caused by the release of mediators from mast cells that have been previously sensitised to a specific allergen.