১.
Epithelial cells are bound to the basal lamina by-
৪৮তম বিশেষ বিসিএস [স্বাস্থ্য] ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]
মোট প্রশ্ন১০০
সিলেবাস
পরীক্ষা – ৩১
Full model test – 4
৪৮তম বিশেষ বিসিএস [স্বাস্থ্য] ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived]
৪৮তম বিশেষ বিসিএস [স্বাস্থ্য] ⎯ মডেল টেস্ট [Archived] · তারিখ অনির্ধারিত · ১০০ প্রশ্ন
২.
Transitional epithelium is present in-
ব্যাখ্যা
৩.
Which cells are responsible for bone resorption?
৪.
Which layer is absent in thin skin?
৫.
Fibrocartilage is present in-
৬.
Which is a derivative of the embryonic midgut?
৭.
Myelin sheath in central nervous system is formed by-
ব্যাখ্যা
৮.
Cardiac dominance is determined by the artery giving the-
৯.
The maxillary sinus open into the-
ব্যাখ্যা
১০.
Which is not a tributary of the portal vein?
ব্যাখ্যা
The inferior mesenteric vein is not a direct tributary of portal vein. It drains into the splenic vein.
১১.
The uterine artery is a branch of-
ব্যাখ্যা
The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery.
It upplies blood to the uterus, as well as parts of the vagina and fallopian tubes.
It upplies blood to the uterus, as well as parts of the vagina and fallopian tubes.
১২.
Which graft is most commonly used for coronary artery bypass grafting?
১৩.
A person’s electrocardiogram (ECG) has no P wave but has a normal QRS complex and a normal T wave. Therefore, his pacemaker is located in the-
ব্যাখ্যা
The absent P wave indicates that the atrium is not depolarizing and, therefore, the pacemaker cannot be in the sinoatrial (SA) node. Because the QRS and
T waves are normal, depolarization and repolarization of the ventricle must be proceeding in the normal sequence. This situation can occur if the pacemaker is located in the
atrioventricular (AV) node. If the pacemaker were located in the bundle of His or in the Purkinje system, the ventricles would activate in an abnormal sequence (depending on
the exact location of the pacemaker) and the QRS wave would have an abnormal configuration. Ventricular muscle does not have pacemaker properties.
T waves are normal, depolarization and repolarization of the ventricle must be proceeding in the normal sequence. This situation can occur if the pacemaker is located in the
atrioventricular (AV) node. If the pacemaker were located in the bundle of His or in the Purkinje system, the ventricles would activate in an abnormal sequence (depending on
the exact location of the pacemaker) and the QRS wave would have an abnormal configuration. Ventricular muscle does not have pacemaker properties.
১৪.
Which is not a stimulator for peripheral chemoreceptors?
ব্যাখ্যা
B. Chemoreceptors for CO2, H+, and O2 (Table 4-7)
1. Central chemoreceptors in the medulla
■ are sensitive to the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Decreases in the pH of the CSF produce increases in breathing rate (hyperventilation).
■ H+does not cross the blood–brain barrier as well as CO2 does.
a. CO2 diffuses from arterial blood into the CSF because CO2 is lipid-soluble and readily crosses the blood–brain barrier.
b. In the CSF, CO2 combines with H2O to produce H+ and HCO3–. The resulting H+ acts directly on the central chemoreceptors.
c. Thus, increases in PCO2 and [H+] stimulate breathing, and decreases in PCO2 and [H+] inhibit breathing.
d. The resulting hyperventilation or hypoventilation then returns the arterial PCO2 toward normal.
2. Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies
■ The carotid bodies are located at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries.
■ The aortic bodies are located above and below the aortic arch.
a. Decreases in arterial PO2
■ stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors and increase breathing rate.
■ PO2 must decrease to low levels (<60 mm Hg) before breathing is stimulated. When PO2 is less than 60 mm Hg, breathing rate is exquisitely sensitive to PO2.
b. Increases in arterial PCO2
■ stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors and increase breathing rate.
■ potentiate the stimulation of breathing caused by hypoxemia.
■ The response of the peripheral chemoreceptors to CO2 is less important than the
response of the central chemoreceptors to CO2 (or H+).
c. Increases in arterial [H+]
■ stimulate the carotid body peripheral chemoreceptors directly, independent of changes in PCO2.
■ In metabolic acidosis, breathing rate is increased (hyperventilation) because arterial [H+] is increased and pH is decreased.
1. Central chemoreceptors in the medulla
■ are sensitive to the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Decreases in the pH of the CSF produce increases in breathing rate (hyperventilation).
■ H+does not cross the blood–brain barrier as well as CO2 does.
a. CO2 diffuses from arterial blood into the CSF because CO2 is lipid-soluble and readily crosses the blood–brain barrier.
b. In the CSF, CO2 combines with H2O to produce H+ and HCO3–. The resulting H+ acts directly on the central chemoreceptors.
c. Thus, increases in PCO2 and [H+] stimulate breathing, and decreases in PCO2 and [H+] inhibit breathing.
d. The resulting hyperventilation or hypoventilation then returns the arterial PCO2 toward normal.
2. Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies
■ The carotid bodies are located at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries.
■ The aortic bodies are located above and below the aortic arch.
a. Decreases in arterial PO2
■ stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors and increase breathing rate.
■ PO2 must decrease to low levels (<60 mm Hg) before breathing is stimulated. When PO2 is less than 60 mm Hg, breathing rate is exquisitely sensitive to PO2.
b. Increases in arterial PCO2
■ stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors and increase breathing rate.
■ potentiate the stimulation of breathing caused by hypoxemia.
■ The response of the peripheral chemoreceptors to CO2 is less important than the
response of the central chemoreceptors to CO2 (or H+).
c. Increases in arterial [H+]
■ stimulate the carotid body peripheral chemoreceptors directly, independent of changes in PCO2.
■ In metabolic acidosis, breathing rate is increased (hyperventilation) because arterial [H+] is increased and pH is decreased.
১৫.
Which of the following substances has the highest renal clearance?
ব্যাখ্যা
Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) has the greatest clearance of all of the substances because it is both filtered and secreted. Inulin is only filtered. The other substances are filtered and subsequently reabsorbed; therefore, they will have clearances
that are lower than the inulin clearance.
that are lower than the inulin clearance.
১৬.
Insulin inhibits-
ব্যাখ্যা
Actions of insulin
■ Insulin acts on the liver, adipose tissue, and muscle.
a. Insulin decreases blood glucose concentration by the following mechanisms:
(1) It increases uptake of glucose into target cells by directing the insertion of glucose transporters into cell membranes. As glucose enters the cells, the blood glucose concentration decreases.
(2) It promotes formation of glycogen from glucose in muscle and liver, and simultaneously inhibits glycogenolysis.
(3) It decreases gluconeogenesis. Insulin increases the production of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate, increasing phosphofructokinase activity. In effect, substrate is directed away from glucose formation.
b. Insulin decreases blood fatty acid and ketoacid concentrations.
■ In adipose tissue, insulin stimulates fat deposition and inhibits lipolysis.
■ Insulin inhibits ketoacid formation in the liver because decreased fatty acid degradation provides less acetyl CoA substrate for ketoacid formation.
c. Insulin decreases blood amino acid concentration.
■ Insulin stimulates amino acid uptake into cells, increases protein synthesis, and inhibits protein degradation. Thus, insulin is anabolic.
d. Insulin decreases blood K+ concentration.
■ Insulin increases K+ uptake into cells, thereby decreasing blood [K+].
■ Insulin acts on the liver, adipose tissue, and muscle.
a. Insulin decreases blood glucose concentration by the following mechanisms:
(1) It increases uptake of glucose into target cells by directing the insertion of glucose transporters into cell membranes. As glucose enters the cells, the blood glucose concentration decreases.
(2) It promotes formation of glycogen from glucose in muscle and liver, and simultaneously inhibits glycogenolysis.
(3) It decreases gluconeogenesis. Insulin increases the production of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate, increasing phosphofructokinase activity. In effect, substrate is directed away from glucose formation.
b. Insulin decreases blood fatty acid and ketoacid concentrations.
■ In adipose tissue, insulin stimulates fat deposition and inhibits lipolysis.
■ Insulin inhibits ketoacid formation in the liver because decreased fatty acid degradation provides less acetyl CoA substrate for ketoacid formation.
c. Insulin decreases blood amino acid concentration.
■ Insulin stimulates amino acid uptake into cells, increases protein synthesis, and inhibits protein degradation. Thus, insulin is anabolic.
d. Insulin decreases blood K+ concentration.
■ Insulin increases K+ uptake into cells, thereby decreasing blood [K+].
১৭.
Which of the following substances is secreted in response to an oral glucose load?
ব্যাখ্যা
Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP) is the only gastrointestinal (GI) hormone that is released in response to all three categories of nutrients—fat, protein, and carbohydrate. Oral glucose releases GIP, which, in turn, causes the release of insulin from the endocrine pancreas. This action of GIP explains why oral glucose is more effective than intravenous glucose in releasing insulin.
১৮.
Regarding taste sensation which one is not correct?
ব্যাখ্যা
Taste
1. Taste pathways
a. Taste receptor cells line the taste buds that are located on specialized papillae. The receptor cells are covered with microvilli, which increase the surface area for binding taste chemicals. In contrast to olfactory receptor cells, taste receptors are not neurons.
b. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue
■ has fungiform papillae.
■ detects salty, sweet, and umami sensations.
■ is innervated by CN VII (chorda tympani).
c. The posterior one-third of the tongue
■ has circumvallate and foliate papillae.
■ detects sour and bitter sensations.
■ is innervated by CN IX (glossopharyngeal).
■ The back of the throat and the epiglottis are innervated by CN X.
d. CN VII, CN IX, and CN X enter the medulla, ascend in the solitary tract, and terminate on second-order taste neurons in the solitary nucleus. They project, primarily ipsilaterally, to the ventral posteromedial nucleus of the thalamus and, finally, to the taste cortex.
2. Steps in taste transduction
■ Taste chemicals (sour, sweet, salty, bitter, and umami) bind to taste receptors on the microvilli and produce a depolarizing receptor potential in the receptor cell.
1. Taste pathways
a. Taste receptor cells line the taste buds that are located on specialized papillae. The receptor cells are covered with microvilli, which increase the surface area for binding taste chemicals. In contrast to olfactory receptor cells, taste receptors are not neurons.
b. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue
■ has fungiform papillae.
■ detects salty, sweet, and umami sensations.
■ is innervated by CN VII (chorda tympani).
c. The posterior one-third of the tongue
■ has circumvallate and foliate papillae.
■ detects sour and bitter sensations.
■ is innervated by CN IX (glossopharyngeal).
■ The back of the throat and the epiglottis are innervated by CN X.
d. CN VII, CN IX, and CN X enter the medulla, ascend in the solitary tract, and terminate on second-order taste neurons in the solitary nucleus. They project, primarily ipsilaterally, to the ventral posteromedial nucleus of the thalamus and, finally, to the taste cortex.
2. Steps in taste transduction
■ Taste chemicals (sour, sweet, salty, bitter, and umami) bind to taste receptors on the microvilli and produce a depolarizing receptor potential in the receptor cell.
১৯.
Liver cell does not store -
ব্যাখ্যা
২০.
Which one decreases in hemolysis?
২১.
Which is not a feature of scurvy ?
ব্যাখ্যা
-
২২.
How much is the ECF volume of a 80 kg male ?
ব্যাখ্যা
ECF volume is 20% of total body weight .
so, 20% of 80 kg is = 16 L
২৩.
Which hormone increases excretion of salt and water from body ?
২৪.
Which factor causes efflux of potassium out of cell ?
২৫.
Which is not a blood buffer ?
২৬.
The main outcome of drug biotransformation is
ব্যাখ্যা
Biotransformation is the molecular alteration of a drug within the biological system. Drugs usually get ready for metabolism by biotransformation.
২৭.
A pharmacolgical antagonist of Acetylcholine is
ব্যাখ্যা
Among the options, only atropine as the antagonist of muscarinic Ach receptor
২৮.
Drugs with a short half life needs multiple dosing to reach
ব্যাখ্যা
Potency and drug safety are not directly linked to half life. Frequent dosing will help to reach steady state concentration.
২৯.
Severe adverse effects of oral contraceptive pill are
ব্যাখ্যা
Katzung 16e, P772-773
Serious complications of OCP are
Venous thromboembolism
MI
CVD
Cholestatic jaundice
Depression
Cancer etc
৩০.
An example of irrational prescribing is
ব্যাখ্যা
Extensive anti microbial coverage is not essential after normal vaginal delivery. A single broad spectrum antibiotic (e.g. Cephradine) may provide highest protection.
৩১.
A person with male genotype (XY) and female phenotype is best described as:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• A person with XY chromosomes but external female genitalia is termed a male pseudohermaphrodite.
• True hermaphrodites have both ovarian and testicular tissues.
• A person with XY chromosomes but external female genitalia is termed a male pseudohermaphrodite.
• True hermaphrodites have both ovarian and testicular tissues.
৩২.
A classical external sign in judicial hanging is:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• In hanging, the ligature mark is high, oblique, and usually incomplete.
• This distinguishes it from strangulation, where the mark is low and horizontal.
• In hanging, the ligature mark is high, oblique, and usually incomplete.
• This distinguishes it from strangulation, where the mark is low and horizontal.
৩৩.
Emasculation is considered:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Emasculation, or loss of masculine functions, is listed under grievous hurt in BPC 320.
• Emasculation, or loss of masculine functions, is listed under grievous hurt in BPC 320.
৩৪.
Which of the following is considered infamous professional conduct?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Unethical practice for financial gain, such as unnecessary surgeries, is termed infamous conduct by MCI.
• Unethical practice for financial gain, such as unnecessary surgeries, is termed infamous conduct by MCI.
৩৫.
A medico-legal report must be written.
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• MLR should be contemporaneous, written in ink, signed with date and time, and kept as legal documentation.
• MLR should be contemporaneous, written in ink, signed with date and time, and kept as legal documentation.
৩৬.
A major disadvantage of OPV is:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• OPV may rarely cause VAPP, especially in immunocompromised individuals.
• IPV does not cause VAPP but is costlier and injectable.
• OPV may rarely cause VAPP, especially in immunocompromised individuals.
• IPV does not cause VAPP but is costlier and injectable.
৩৭.
The most effective time frame for emergency contraceptive pill (levonorgestrel) is within:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Emergency contraception with levonorgestrel is most effective when taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.
• Emergency contraception with levonorgestrel is most effective when taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.
৩৮.
Cohort studies are characterized by:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Incidence and relative risk (RR) can be calculated in cohort studies as subjects are followed over time.
• Incidence and relative risk (RR) can be calculated in cohort studies as subjects are followed over time.
৩৯.
According to WHO, sound above which level is hazardous to health?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Exposure to sound above 85 decibels (dB) for prolonged periods may result in noise-induced hearing loss
• Exposure to sound above 85 decibels (dB) for prolonged periods may result in noise-induced hearing loss
৪০.
The target year for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• The SDG agenda was launched in 2015, with the goal of achieving all 17 goals by 2030.
• The SDG agenda was launched in 2015, with the goal of achieving all 17 goals by 2030.
৪১.
What is the main contraindication for administering a live attenuated vaccine?
ব্যাখ্যা
Contraindications of live vaccines (names only):
Immunodeficiency (congenital or acquired)
HIV infection with severe immunosuppression
Pregnancy
Recent administration of immunosuppressive therapy (e.g., chemotherapy, high-dose steroids)
History of severe allergic reaction to vaccine components
Immunodeficiency (congenital or acquired)
HIV infection with severe immunosuppression
Pregnancy
Recent administration of immunosuppressive therapy (e.g., chemotherapy, high-dose steroids)
History of severe allergic reaction to vaccine components
৪২.
Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of hookworm infection?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Parasitic infections like hookworm typically cause eosinophilia due to immune response against helminths
Parasitic infections like hookworm typically cause eosinophilia due to immune response against helminths
৪৩.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for hypothyroidism?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Levothyroxine, synthetic T4, is the standard treatment for hypothyroidism.
Levothyroxine, synthetic T4, is the standard treatment for hypothyroidism.
৪৪.
Which joint is most commonly affected in psoriatic arthritis?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Psoriatic arthritis commonly affects DIP joints, which helps differentiate it from rheumatoid arthritis.
Psoriatic arthritis commonly affects DIP joints, which helps differentiate it from rheumatoid arthritis.
৪৫.
Which of the following is a known complication of disseminated gonococcal infection?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explannation :
Complications of Gonorrhoea Infection :
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Ectopic pregnancy
Infertility (both male and female)
Chronic pelvic pain
Epididymitis
Prostatitis
Disseminated Gonococcal Infection (DGI)
Septic arthritis
Complications of Gonorrhoea Infection :
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Ectopic pregnancy
Infertility (both male and female)
Chronic pelvic pain
Epididymitis
Prostatitis
Disseminated Gonococcal Infection (DGI)
Septic arthritis
৪৬.
Which one is an example of Type IV Hypersensitivity?
৪৭.
Which of the following organism causes chancroid?
৪৮.
Which agar media is used for the culture of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
৪৯.
Cause of diarrhoea after eating reheated rice-
৫০.
Animal reservoir of Avian Influenzae virus-
৫১.
Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission of Giardia lamblia?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Giardia is transmitted by ingestion of cysts in contaminated water.
• It’s a major cause of traveler’s diarrhea.
• Giardia is transmitted by ingestion of cysts in contaminated water.
• It’s a major cause of traveler’s diarrhea.
৫২.
Which of the following is a late complication of repeated blood transfusions?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Iron overload occurs with multiple transfusions due to accumulation.
• Managed with chelation therapy (e.g., deferoxamine).
• Iron overload occurs with multiple transfusions due to accumulation.
• Managed with chelation therapy (e.g., deferoxamine).
৫৩.
Which laboratory finding supports AGN?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Low C3 complement is common in AGN (especially post-infectious types).
• Low C3 complement is common in AGN (especially post-infectious types).
৫৪.
Peripheral smear shows bite cells in—?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• G6PD deficiency causes haemolysis after oxidative stress (e.g., drugs, infection).
• Bite cells and Heinz bodies are characteristic.
• G6PD deficiency causes haemolysis after oxidative stress (e.g., drugs, infection).
• Bite cells and Heinz bodies are characteristic.
৫৫.
Which test helps differentiate transudate from exudate in pleural fluid?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Light’s criteria are used to classify pleural fluid as transudate or exudate.
• Light’s criteria are used to classify pleural fluid as transudate or exudate.
৫৬.
Which of the following features distinguishes Cushing’s syndrome from simple obesity?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Facial plethora, bruising, and proximal muscle weakness point toward Cushing’s syndrome.
• Facial plethora, bruising, and proximal muscle weakness point toward Cushing’s syndrome.
৫৭.
Best time to collect blood for diagnosing filariasis?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Microfilariae show nocturnal periodicity; hence, blood is collected around midnight.
• Microfilariae show nocturnal periodicity; hence, blood is collected around midnight.
৫৮.
CSF in viral encephalitis typically shows:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Viral encephalitis typically shows lymphocytic CSF, normal glucose, and mildly raised protein.
• Viral encephalitis typically shows lymphocytic CSF, normal glucose, and mildly raised protein.
৫৯.
Type 1 respiratory failure is defined by:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Type 1 respiratory failure: PaO₂ < 60 mmHg, PaCO₂ normal or low.
• Seen in pneumonia, ARDS, and PE.
• Type 1 respiratory failure: PaO₂ < 60 mmHg, PaCO₂ normal or low.
• Seen in pneumonia, ARDS, and PE.
৬০.
A 32-year-old woman has upper abdominal discomfort without endoscopic findings. Most likely diagnosis?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Functional dyspepsia (non-ulcer) is diagnosed when no structural cause is found on endoscopy.
• Functional dyspepsia (non-ulcer) is diagnosed when no structural cause is found on endoscopy.
৬১.
Most common site of gonorrhoea in women is:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• In women, the cervix is most commonly affected, followed by urethra and rectum.
• In women, the cervix is most commonly affected, followed by urethra and rectum.
৬২.
Most common cutaneous drug reaction is:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Morbilliform rash is the most common presentation of drug-induced hypersensitivity.
• Morbilliform rash is the most common presentation of drug-induced hypersensitivity.
৬৩.
Most common cause of acute kidney injury (AKI) in hospitalized patients is:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• ATN from ischemia or nephrotoxins is the most common cause of hospital-acquired AKI.
• ATN from ischemia or nephrotoxins is the most common cause of hospital-acquired AKI.
৬৪.
Ranson’s criteria are used to assess:
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Ranson’s criteria include age, WBC, glucose, AST, LDH etc. to assess severity/mortality in acute pancreatitis.
• Ranson’s criteria include age, WBC, glucose, AST, LDH etc. to assess severity/mortality in acute pancreatitis.
৬৫.
Which of the following is a biological symptom of depression?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Biological symptoms include early waking, appetite loss, weight loss, libido loss.
• Biological symptoms include early waking, appetite loss, weight loss, libido loss.
৬৬.
Which is a common cause of acute pericarditis?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Most cases of acute pericarditis are due to viral infections (Coxsackie, echovirus).
• Most cases of acute pericarditis are due to viral infections (Coxsackie, echovirus).
৬৭.
Which of the following is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
• Streptococcus pneumoniae is the leading cause of CAP.
• Mycoplasma is more common in young adults with atypical symptoms.
• Streptococcus pneumoniae is the leading cause of CAP.
• Mycoplasma is more common in young adults with atypical symptoms.
৬৮.
Which is the best method for monitoring the adequacy of shock therapy?
৬৯.
In case of elective surgery, warfarin should be stopped at least-
৭০.
Which is an immediately life threatening chest injury?
৭১.
Which cell is most active during the proliferative phase of wound healing?
৭২.
Which is not a risk factor for wound dehiscence?
৭৩.
Which is an example of colloid solution?
৭৪.
Which of these structures forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?
ব্যাখ্যা
৭৫.
Epigastric pain radiating to the back with positive Cullen's sign. What is the diagnosis?
ব্যাখ্যা
৭৬.
Which is the first line investigation for acute cholecystitis?
ব্যাখ্যা
USG is the first line imaging in hepatobiliary pathology.
৭৭.
Blood-stained nipple discharge can be caused by-
৭৮.
Which is not an immediate post-operative complication of thyroidectomy?
ব্যাখ্যা
The half life of PTH is only 3-5 minutes.
In case of inadvertent removal of parathuroid glands during thyroidectomy or disruption of the blood supply of the parathyroid glands can cause hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcemic tetany during the immediate post-operative period.
T4 has a longer half life (about 7 days) and remains in blood for some time even after total thyroidectomy.
In case of inadvertent removal of parathuroid glands during thyroidectomy or disruption of the blood supply of the parathyroid glands can cause hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcemic tetany during the immediate post-operative period.
T4 has a longer half life (about 7 days) and remains in blood for some time even after total thyroidectomy.
৭৯.
Which is the most common type of hydrocele?
৮০.
Which is a clinical sign of advanced gastric cancer?
৮১.
Which is the most common cause of acute osteomyelitis in adults?
৮২.
Which is not associated with increased risk of deep vein thrombosis?
ব্যাখ্যা
৮৩.
Which is the most common type of intussusception in children?
৮৪.
Which is the most common cause of hematemesis?
৮৫.
What is the color of normal amniotic fluid at term?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Normal amniotic fluid is clear or colourless in early pregnancy and slightly straw-colored in term.
Green fluid indicates meconium staining; brown suggests old blood or intrauterine death.
Normal amniotic fluid is clear or colourless in early pregnancy and slightly straw-colored in term.
Green fluid indicates meconium staining; brown suggests old blood or intrauterine death.
৮৬.
What is the typical gross appearance of a fibroid on cut section?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Fibroids have a characteristic whorled, firm, gray-white cut surface.
Fibroids have a characteristic whorled, firm, gray-white cut surface.
৮৭.
Which of the following types of placenta previa completely covers the internal cervical os?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Complete (or total) placenta previa occurs when the placenta entirely covers the cervical os, requiring cesarean delivery.
Complete (or total) placenta previa occurs when the placenta entirely covers the cervical os, requiring cesarean delivery.
৮৮.
What does total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH) involve?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
TAH involves the surgical removal of the entire uterus including the cervix through an abdominal (laparotomy) incision.
TAH involves the surgical removal of the entire uterus including the cervix through an abdominal (laparotomy) incision.
৮৯.
What is the immunoglobulin involved in Rh alloimmunization?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
IgG antibodies cross the placenta and attack Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, causing hemolysis.
IgG antibodies cross the placenta and attack Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, causing hemolysis.
৯০.
Which tumor marker is most useful in the diagnosis and follow-up of epithelial ovarian carcinoma?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
CA-125 is elevated in most epithelial ovarian cancers, especially serous types, and is used for diagnosis, prognosis, and monitoring treatment response.
৯১.
What is the target blood pressure in non-severe hypertension during pregnancy?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
To reduce maternal complications while ensuring uteroplacental perfusion, BP is maintained <140/90 in non-severe cases.
To reduce maternal complications while ensuring uteroplacental perfusion, BP is maintained <140/90 in non-severe cases.
৯২.
Which parameter is NOT typically recorded on a standard partograph?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Maternal blood glucose is not routinely recorded on the partograph. The partograph tracks labor-related parameters such as cervical dilation, fetal descent, contractions, fetal heart rate, and maternal vitals like pulse and blood pressure.
Maternal blood glucose is not routinely recorded on the partograph. The partograph tracks labor-related parameters such as cervical dilation, fetal descent, contractions, fetal heart rate, and maternal vitals like pulse and blood pressure.
৯৩.
Which test is commonly used for GDM screening?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
The 75g OGTT is the standard screening and diagnostic test for GDM.
The 75g OGTT is the standard screening and diagnostic test for GDM.
৯৪.
Which diagnostic test is the gold standard for detecting premalignant cervical lesions?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
While Pap smear and HPV DNA testing are screening tools, colposcopy with directed biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosing and grading premalignant cervical lesions.
It allows direct visualization of abnormal epithelium and histological confirmation.
While Pap smear and HPV DNA testing are screening tools, colposcopy with directed biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosing and grading premalignant cervical lesions.
It allows direct visualization of abnormal epithelium and histological confirmation.
৯৫.
What is the classical triad of congenital rubella syndrome (CRS)?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: The classical CRS triad includes:
Cataracts,
Sensorineural deafness,
Congenital heart disease (commonly PDA or pulmonary artery stenosis).
Cataracts,
Sensorineural deafness,
Congenital heart disease (commonly PDA or pulmonary artery stenosis).
৯৬.
What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Topical azole antifungals like clotrimazole are first-line for uncomplicated cases; oral fluconazole is also effective in complicated ones
Topical azole antifungals like clotrimazole are first-line for uncomplicated cases; oral fluconazole is also effective in complicated ones
৯৭.
What is the primary goal of antenatal care?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
The main aim of antenatal care is to monitor maternal and fetal health, detect complications early, and ensure a safe pregnancy outcome
To delivery a healthy baby from healthy mother
৯৮.
Which hormone primarily triggers breast development during puberty?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Estrogen from the ovaries stimulates ductal growth and fat deposition in the breasts, leading to thelarche.
Estrogen from the ovaries stimulates ductal growth and fat deposition in the breasts, leading to thelarche.
৯৯.
What defines the onset of true labor?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
True labor begins with regular, painful contractions leading to progressive cervical changes (effacement and dilation).
True labor begins with regular, painful contractions leading to progressive cervical changes (effacement and dilation).
১০০.
What is the most common clinical presentation of neonatal sepsis?
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation:
Neonates typically present with nonspecific signs such as:
Poor feeding
Lethargy or irritability
Hypo- or hyperthermia
Respiratory distress or apnea associated with jaundice
These signs warrant prompt evaluation for sepsis, as symptoms can progress rapidly.
Neonates typically present with nonspecific signs such as:
Poor feeding
Lethargy or irritability
Hypo- or hyperthermia
Respiratory distress or apnea associated with jaundice
These signs warrant prompt evaluation for sepsis, as symptoms can progress rapidly.