বিষয়সমূহ

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Medicine

মোট প্রশ্ন১,৮২২এই পাতা১০০প্রতি পাতা১০০
ঘনত্ব
উত্তর
উত্তরিতবর্তমানপুনরায় দেখুনঅসম্পূর্ণ

Medicine

PrepBank · পাতা ১৩ / ১৯ · ১,২০১১,৩০০ / ১,৮২২

১,২০১.
Angiotension II does not work on
  1. Adrenal medulla
  2. Adrenal cortex
  3. Brain
  4. Vessel
১,২০২.
Commonest site of subarachnoid haemorrhage
  1. ক) Anterior cerebral artery
  2. খ) Posterior communicating artery
  3. গ) Anterior communicating artery
  4. ঘ) Posterior cerebral artery
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd, Page: 1160
Explanation: most common site of SAH are Anterior communicating artery (30%)
১,২০৩.
A continuous machinery murmur is found in
  1. MR
  2. AS
  3. PDA
  4. TOF
ব্যাখ্যা
Continuous murmurs
These result from a combination of systolic and diastolic flow, such as occurs with a persistent ductus arteriosus, and must be distinguished from extracardiac noises such as bruits from arterial shunts, venous hums (high rates of venous flow in children) and pericardial friction rubs
১,২০৪.
Echocardiography is commonly indicated for assessment of function of
  1. ক) RA
  2. খ) RV
  3. গ) LA
  4. ঘ) LV
১,২০৫.
Hansen disease is caused by
  1. M lepre
  2. M TB
  3. Plasmodium
  4. Clostridium
ব্যাখ্যা
Leprosy, also known as Hansen's disease, is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae. The disease affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosal surfaces of the upper respiratory tract and the eyes.
১,২০৬.
Feature of lower motor neuron lesion include-
  1. Increased deep tendon reflexes
  2. Extensor plantar response
  3. Clonus
  4. Fasciculation
১,২০৭.
Which antidote is not a chelating agent?
  1. ক) Desferrioxamine
  2. খ) DMSA
  3. গ) Dicobalt edetate
  4. ঘ) Methylthionium chloride
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-137
১,২০৮.
Feature of jugular venous pulsation-
  1. One peak per heart beat
  2. Rapid outward movement
  3. Palpable
  4. Rises with abdominal pressure
ব্যাখ্যা
MacLeod's Clinical Examination, Page 57
১,২০৯.
Which one of the following is the most common cause of sudden arrhythmic death?
  1. Mitral stenosis
  2. Congenital Heart disease
  3. Coronary artery disease
  4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
১,২১০.
Treatment of trichomoniasis
  1. ক) Fluconazole
  2. খ) Metronidazole
  3. গ) Nitazoxanide
  4. ঘ) Ciprofloxacin
১,২১১.
Abetalipoproteinaemia is
  1. AR
  2. AD
  3. XLD
  4. XLR
১,২১২.
Pulmonary complications of obesity excludes
  1. ক) Exercise intolerance
  2. খ) Obstructive sleep apnoea
  3. গ) Asthma
  4. ঘ) COPD
১,২১৩.
Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy ?
  1. Amlodipine
  2. Methyldopa
  3. Losartan
  4. Bisoprolol
ব্যাখ্যা
ACE inhibitor and ARB are contraindicated 

Davidson Box: 16.72
১,২১৪.
Which screening should be done prior to therapy with rituximab in NHL
  1. Hepatitis B and C testing
  2. LFT
  3. PT
  4. CBC
ব্যাখ্যা
Hepatitis B and C testing. This should be done prior to therapy with rituximab in NHL
১,২১৫.
Blood film of megaloblastic anaemia
  1. ক) Target cells
  2. খ) Neutrophil hypersegmentation
  3. গ) Heinz bodies
  4. ঘ) Basophilic stippling
ব্যাখ্যা
Ref: Davidson 23rd; P-944, box: 23.32
১,২১৬.
Which of the following is the muscarinic features of OPC poisoning?
  1. ক) Tachycardia
  2. খ) Hypertension
  3. গ) Bronchorrhoea
  4. ঘ) Fasciculation
১,২১৭.
in which grade murmur can be heard without sthethoscope?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
১,২১৮.
Which is not a typical feature of Cauda equina syndrome?
  1. ক) Difficulty with micturition
  2. খ) Urinary incontinence
  3. গ) Saddle anaesthesia
  4. ঘ) Gait disturbance
১,২১৯.
Thyroid hormone registance occurs in
  1. Atrophic hypothyroidism
  2. 5 -monodeiodinase deficiency
  3. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  4. Subacute thyroiditis
১,২২০.
Which one of the following can cause oedema due to increased capillary permeability?
  1. Nephrotic syndrome
  2. Liver failure
  3. Severe sepsis
  4. Malnutrition
১,২২১.
Which of the following condition is indicated for emergency surgery in peptic ulcer disease?
  1. ক) Gastric outflow obstruction
  2. খ) Persistent ulceration despite adequate medical therapy
  3. গ) Haemorrhage
  4. ঘ) Recurrent ulcer following gastric surgery
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd Box 21.37
১,২২২.
What is a common cause of chronic type 2 respiratory failure?
  1. Pulmonary embolism
  2. Pneumothorax
  3. Myopathies
  4. Interstitial lung disease
ব্যাখ্যা
chronic type 2 respiratory failure, marked by hypoxemia (PaO2 <60 mmHg) and hypercapnia (PaCO2 >45 mmHg), commonly results from COPD, ankylosing spondylitis, sleep apnoea, myopathies, muscular dystrophies. 
১,২২৩.
Type 3 hypersensitivity
  1. ক) Allergic disease
  2. খ) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  3. গ) Serum sickness
  4. ঘ) Type-1 diabetes
১,২২৪.
A 50-year-old obese man with hypertension presents with sudden, excruciating pain and swelling in the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Synovial fluid analysis shows needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
  1. Allopurinol
  2. Colchicine
  3. Methotrexate
  4. Prednisone
ব্যাখ্যা
Acute gout is treated with colchicine, NSAIDs, or steroids. Allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inhibitor) is for chronic prophylaxis, not acute attacks.
১,২২৫.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of nephritic syndrome?
  1. Hematuria
  2. Hypertension
  3. Oliguria
  4. Hyperlipidemia
ব্যাখ্যা
Answer: D
Explanation: Nephritic syndrome is characterised by hematuria, hypertension, oliguria, and azotemia. Davidson emphasises that hyperlipidemia is a feature of nephrotic syndrome, not nephritic syndrome. Nephritic syndrome results from glomerular inflammation, leading to red blood cell leakage into the urine. Harrison explains the differences between nephritic and nephrotic syndromes, noting that nephritic syndrome also causes renal insufficiency and fluid retention.
১,২২৬.
The most common childhood leukemia is:
  1. CML
  2. ALL
  3. AML
  4. Hairy cell leukemia
ব্যাখ্যা
ALL peaks between ages 2–5 and presents with anemia, thrombocytopenia, and lymphadenopathy.
১,২২৭.
Thalassaemia is a/an
  1. ক) Autosomal dominant conditions
  2. খ) Autosomal recessive conditions
  3. গ) X-linked recessive conditions
  4. ঘ) X-linked dominant Condition
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd, Box-3.4
১,২২৮.
Which of the following drugs is safe for treatment of IBD during pregnancy?
  1. Methotrexate
  2. Tofacitinib
  3. Azathioprine
  4. Ciclosporin
১,২২৯.
Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis occurs in all of the following channel defects except-
  1. Sodium channel
  2. Chloride channel
  3. Calcium channel
  4. Potassium channel
১,২৩০.
Severe, constant upper abdominal pain of increasing intensity over 15-60 minutes which radiates to the back is the typical presentation of
  1. ক) Gut perforation
  2. খ) Intestinal obstruction
  3. গ) Acute pancreatitis
  4. ঘ) Chronic pancreatitis
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-837
১,২৩১.
Toxic metabolite of Methanol is-
  1. Glycolic acid
  2. Oxalic acid
  3. Glyoxylic acid
  4. Formic acid
১,২৩২.
Hemophilia A results from deficiency of
  1. ক) Factor-7
  2. খ) Factor-8
  3. গ) Factor-9
  4. ঘ) Factor-10
ব্যাখ্যা
Ref: Davidson 23rd; P-971
১,২৩৩.
A 25-year-old man presents with intense nocturnal itching and linear burrows between his fingers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Atopic dermatitis
  2. Psoriasis
  3. Scabies
  4. Contact dermatitis
ব্যাখ্যা
Burrows + nocturnal pruritus are pathognomonic for scabies (caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mite).
১,২৩৪.
Desmoglein-1 is found in
  1. Pemphigus vulgaris
  2. Pemphigus foliaceus
  3. Linear IgA disease
  4. Bullous lupus erythematosus
১,২৩৫.
In C5 compression which is found
  1. UMNL
  2. LMNL
  3. Mixed
  4. None
১,২৩৬.
Presenting feature of meningitis includes..
  1. ক) Headache
  2. খ) Fever
  3. গ) Neck stiffness
  4. ঘ) All above
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Headache, drowsiness, fever and neck stiffness are the usual presenting features. In severe bacterial meningitis the patient may be comatose, later developing focal neurological signs
১,২৩৭.
Which laboratory finding is most indicative of hemolytic anemia?
  1. Low hemoglobin with high reticulocyte count
  2. Low serum ferritin
  3. High mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
  4. Elevated white blood cell count
ব্যাখ্যা
Hemolytic anemia is characterized by increased red blood cell destruction, leading to low hemoglobin (anemia) and a compensatory increase in reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) due to bone marrow response.
১,২৩৮.
1st country to eradicate kalaz-azar?
  1. India
  2. Pakistan
  3. Bhutan
  4. Bangladesh
১,২৩৯.
TTP is characterised by
  1. thrombocytopenia
  2. microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
  3. neurological sequelae
  4. renal impairment
ব্যাখ্যা
TP is characterised by a pentad of findndings, although few patients have all five components:
 thrombocytopenia  microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia  neurological sequelae  fever  renal impairmen
১,২৪০.
Which can involve any part of the GIT from mouth to anus?
  1. ক) Ulcerative colitis
  2. খ) Crohn’s disease
  3. গ) Tropical sprue
  4. ঘ) Coeliac disease
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-813
১,২৪১.
Metabolic acidosis is associated with all of the followings except:
  1. Methanol poisoning
  2. RTA
  3. Vomiting
  4. Lactic acidosis
১,২৪২.
Antihypertensive contraindicated in gout
  1. ক) Thiazide
  2. খ) ARB
  3. গ) Beta blocker
  4. ঘ) Alpha blocker
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-514
১,২৪৩.
What is the most appropriate initial imaging modality for a patient presenting with acute stroke symptoms?
  1. Non-contrast CT brain
  2. MRI brain with diffusion-weighted imaging
  3. CT angiography
  4. PET scan
ব্যাখ্যা
In acute stroke, the priority is to differentiate ischemic stroke from hemorrhagic stroke is the main concern & it is done by Non-contrast CT brain.
১,২৪৪.
Feature of massive pulmonary embolus-
  1. Pleural effusion
  2. Oligaemic lung field
  3. Hyperinflation
  4. Cardiomegaly
১,২৪৫.
Treatment of choice for syphilis during pregnancy
  1. ক) Penicillin
  2. খ) Cephalosporin
  3. গ) Macrolides
  4. ঘ) Tetracyclines
১,২৪৬.
Exposure to beryllium is encountered in
  1. the aerospace
  2. engineering
  3. telecommunications
  4. ALL
১,২৪৭.
Coffee is a rich source of
  1. ক) Sodium
  2. খ) Potassium
  3. গ) Calcium
  4. ঘ) Magnesium
১,২৪৮.
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension may be confirmed by
  1. ক) MRI
  2. খ) EEG
  3. গ) PET CT
  4. ঘ) Lumbar puncture
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd, Page: 1133
Explanation: The diagnosis may be confirmed by lumbar puncture, which shows raised normal CSF constituents at increased pressure ( usually > 30 cmH2O CSF )
১,২৪৯.
All patient with functional dyspepsia must be advised for
  1. H. Pylori detection
  2. Endoscopy
  3. USG
  4. ECG
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-802
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
১,২৫০.
Altered colour vision is associated with toxicity of
  1. ক) Digoxin
  2. খ) Amiodarone
  3. গ) Verapamil
  4. ঘ) ACEi
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-482
১,২৫১.
Which of the following act as the Pacemaker of the gut?
  1. Migrating motor complexes
  2. Enterochromaffin like cells
  3. Interstitial cells of Cajal
  4. Paneth cells
ব্যাখ্যা

Peristalsis

Peristalsis is a reflex triggered by gut wall distension, which consists of a wave of circular muscle contraction to propel contents from the oesophagus to the rectum. It can be influenced by innervation but functions independently. It results from a basic electrical rhythm originating from the interstitial cells of Cajal in the circular layer of intestinal smooth muscle. These are stellate cells of mesenchymal origin with smooth muscle features, which act as the ‘pacemaker’ of the gut.

১,২৫২.
Fir tree’ pattern on trunk is seen in
  1. Atopic eczema
  2. Psoriasis
  3. Pityriasis rosea
  4. Lichen planus
১,২৫৩.
Small pupil and partial ptosis is characteristic feature of
  1. 3rd nerve palsy
  2. Horner syndrome
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Argyll Robertson pupil
১,২৫৪.
which of the followings ia a cardinal biochemical feature of diabetic ketoacidosis?
  1. ক) hyperketonaemia (≥ 6.0 mmol/L)
  2. খ) ketonuria (more than 2+ on standard urine sticks)
  3. গ) hyperglycaemia (blood glucose ≥ 30 mmol/L
  4. ঘ) venous pH < 7.1
ব্যাখ্যা

Explanation: The cardinal biochemical features are:
 hyperketonaemia (≥ 3.0 mmol/L) or ketonuria (more than 2+ on standard urine sticks)
 hyperglycaemia (blood glucose ≥ 11 mmol/L (approximately 200 mg/dL))
 metabolic acidosis (venous bicarbonate < 15 mmol/L and/
 venous pH < 7.3 (H+ > 50 nmol/L)).The hyperglycaemia causes a profound osmotic diuresis

১,২৫৫.
Which cell play a key role in the development of hepatic fibrosis?
  1. Hepatocytes
  2. NK cells
  3. Stellate cell
  4. Sinusoidal endothelial cell
১,২৫৬.
Causes of anaemia with normal marrow production-
  1. Anaemia of chronic disease
  2. Lack of iron
  3. Hypersplenism
  4. Renal failure
১,২৫৭.
Clinical features of strongyloidiasis is
  1. Itchy rash
  2. Urticarial plaques and papules
  3. Transient itchy, linear, urticarial weals across abdomen
  4. All
১,২৫৮.
Which disease can involve any part of GIT from mouth to anus?
  1. Coeliac disease
  2. Tropical sprue
  3. Ulcerative colitis
  4. Crohn’s disease
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-813
সলভ ক্লাসের জন্য আলোচনা পোস্ট দেখুন - [আলোচনা পোস্টের লিঙ্ক]
১,২৫৯.
False localising sign of intracranial mass lesion is-
  1. Focal onset
  2. Dysphasia
  3. Unilateral 6th nerve palsy
  4. Papilloedema
১,২৬০.
Which is not a cause of pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome
  1. Alcohol excess
  2. McCune–Albright syndrome
  3. Major depressive illness
  4. Primary obesity
১,২৬১.
Anemia with HTN & oedema
  1. ক) NS
  2. খ) CLD
  3. গ) ALL
  4. ঘ) CKD
১,২৬২.
Tumor marker most commonly associated with hepatocellular carcinoma:
  1. CEA
  2. CA 19-9
  3. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
  4. PSA
ব্যাখ্যা
AFP is elevated in up to 70% of patients with HCC and used as a screening and diagnostic tool.
১,২৬৩.
A 24 year old lady came to your chamber with complaints of Extreme cachexia with history of diet control, heavy exercise, induced vomiting and amenorrhea .Diagnosis will be
  1. avoidant restrictive food intake disorder
  2. anorexia nervosa
  3. binge eating disorder
  4. bulimia nervosa
১,২৬৪.
Tetralogy of Fallot comprises all except
  1. Aortic stenosis
  2. Overriding aorta
  3. Ventricular septal defect
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
১,২৬৫.
Which disease is greatly associated with Ulcerative colitis?
  1. ক) PBC
  2. খ) PSC
  3. গ) Autoimmune hepatitis
  4. ঘ) RA
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Ulcerative colitis is associated with PSC
১,২৬৬.
Antibodies to thyroid peroxidase is most prevalent in
  1. ক) Multinodular goitre
  2. খ) Graves’ disease
  3. গ) Transient thyroiditis
  4. ঘ) Autoimmune hypothyroidism
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-637, box: 18.8
১,২৬৭.
In Glasgow 7 point score ,major criteria include
  1. Size
  2. Shape
  3. Colour
  4. All
১,২৬৮.
Which of the following is the primary role of Vitamin C that explains its importance in maintaining the integrity of connective tissues?
  1. Its function as an antioxidant.
  2. Its role in iron absorption.
  3. Its necessity as a co-factor for collagen synthesis.
  4. Its involvement in red blood cell production.
ব্যাখ্যা
Vitamin C is essential for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen synthesis. This hydroxylation is critical for forming stable collagen triple helices, which are fundamental to the structural integrity of skin, blood vessels, bones, cartilage, and gums.
১,২৬৯.
Which nutrient deficiency can be seen in case of prolonged parenteral nutrition?
  1. Zinc
  2. Selenium
  3. Chromium
  4. Copper
১,২৭০.
Which is not a complication of diptheria
  1. Laryngeal obstruction
  2. Myocarditis
  3. Peripheral neuropathy
  4. Stroke
ব্যাখ্যা
Complications
 Laryngeal obstruction or paralysis
 Myocarditis  Peripheral neuropathy
১,২৭১.
Lab diagnosis not compatible with Amiodarone therapy
  1. TSH- Indetectable
  2. TSH- Low
  3. T3- Raised
  4. T4-Raised
১,২৭২.
Best indicator of acute Hepatitis B infection?
  1. HBsAg
  2. Anti-HBc IgG
  3. Anti-HBc IgM
  4. HBeAg
ব্যাখ্যা
IgM anti-HBc indicates acute or recent infection. HBsAg shows current infection but doesn’t differentiate acute from chronic.
১,২৭৩.
What test is used to monitor long-term glycemic control in diabetes mellitus?
  1. Fasting plasma glucose
  2. Oral glucose tolerance test
  3. HbA1c
  4. Random blood glucose
ব্যাখ্যা
HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months, making it the standard for monitoring long-term glycemic control in diabetes. Fasting and random glucose tests assess acute levels, and the oral glucose tolerance test is for diagnosis, not monitoring.
১,২৭৪.
Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection caused by which of the folloing organism?
  1. ক) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  2. খ) Treponema pallidum
  3. গ) Chlamydia trachomatis
  4. ঘ) Haemophilus ducreyi
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd, Box-13.12
১,২৭৫.
Cerebellar Nuclei are
  1. dentate
  2. emboliform
  3. globose
  4. All
ব্যাখ্যা
From lateral to medial, the four deep cerebellar nuclei are the dentate, emboliform, globose, and fastigii.
১,২৭৬.
Which is not a biochemocal marker for empyena?
  1. Glucose
  2. Protein
  3. pH
  4. LDH
১,২৭৭.
In which is site carotenemia is not seen
  1. Face
  2. Sole
  3. Conjunctiva
  4. Palm
ব্যাখ্যা
Hypercarotenaemia occurs due to excessive ingestion of carotene-containing vegetables or in situations of impaired metabolism such as hypothyroidism or anorexia nervosa.

A yellowish discoloration is seen on the face, palms and soles but not the sclera or conjunctiva, and this distinguishes it from jaundice 


Macledo 14th/P-26
১,২৭৮.
Gold standard for h. pylori detection
  1. ক) Urea breath test
  2. খ) Histology
  3. গ) Rapid urease test
  4. ঘ) Microbiological culture
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-800
১,২৭৯.
Which of the following is not included in Light's Criteria?
  1. Pleural fluid protein:serum protein ratio >0.5
  2. Pleural fluid LDH:serum LDH ratio >0.6
  3. Pleural fluid LDH > two-thirds of the upper limit of normal serum LDH
  4. Serum LDH : Pleural fluid LDH ratio >0.6
১,২৮০.
1st sign of infection in kala azar
  1. ক) Low grade fever
  2. খ) High grade fever
  3. গ) Splenomegaly
  4. ঘ) Black pigmentation
১,২৮১.
Non invasive method for diagnosis of H. pylori infection
  1. ক) Fecal antigen test
  2. খ) Histology
  3. গ) Rapid urease test
  4. ঘ) Microbiological culture
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-800
১,২৮২.
Bamboo spine is a feature of
  1. ক) RA
  2. খ) SLE
  3. গ) AS
  4. ঘ) OA
১,২৮৩.
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is mostly due to
  1. ক) Polyclonal proliferation of B-cell lymphocytes
  2. খ) Monoclonal proliferation of B-cell lymphocytes
  3. গ) Monoclonal proliferation of T-cell lymphocytes
  4. ঘ) Polyclonal proliferation of T-cell lymphocytes
ব্যাখ্যা
CLL is caused by a monoclonal proliferation of B-cell lymphocytes
১,২৮৪.
Which part of nephron is highly permeable to water?
  1. ক) Proximal convoluted tubule
  2. খ) Loop of Henle
  3. গ) Early distal tubule
  4. ঘ) Late distal tubule
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd; P-351
১,২৮৫.
On general examination, Thenar wasting is associated with which of the following?
  1. ক) ulnar nerve lesion
  2. খ) median nerve lesion
  3. গ) indicates C8 lesion
  4. ঘ) indicates T1 lesion
ব্যাখ্যা

Explanation:
• Thenar wasting—indicates median nerve lesion.
• Hypothenar and other muscles wasting (except thenar)— indicates ulnar nerve lesion.
• On the dorsum—wasting with dorsal guttering (interossei) indicates ulnar nerve lesion.
• Generalized wasting—indicates C8 and T1 lesion.

১,২৮৬.
Early complication of allogenic haematopoietic stem cell transplantation?
  1. Cataracts
  2. Chronic Graft vs hist disease
  3. Liver veno occlusive disease
  4. Infertility
১,২৮৭.
“Thumb printing mucosa” is found in -
  1. Crohn’s disease
  2. Severe ulcerative colitis
  3. Whipple’s disease
  4. Coeliac disease
১,২৮৮.
Iodine is rich in
  1. ক) Liver
  2. খ) Shellfish
  3. গ) Sea food
  4. ঘ) Edible seaweeds
ব্যাখ্যা
Reference: Davidson 23rd , Page : 717 , Box : 19.34
১,২৮৯.
A 45-year-old woman presents with chronic fatigue, pruritus, and a history of dry eyes. Her liver function tests reveal an isolated elevation in alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA) are positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Primary biliary cholangitis
  2. Autoimmune hepatitis
  3. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
  4. Hepatitis C
ব্যাখ্যা
Stem Breakdown:

Chronic fatigue, pruritus (itching), and dry eyes: These are common symptoms in cholestatic liver disease, particularly in autoimmune liver conditions.
Isolated elevation in ALP: Alkaline phosphatase elevation suggests cholestasis, where bile flow is impaired, leading to liver dysfunction.
Positive antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA): This is the hallmark serological finding in primary biliary cholangitis (PBC).
Option Analysis:

A) Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC): This is the correct diagnosis. Davidson explains that PBC is an autoimmune disorder characterised by chronic inflammation and destruction of small bile ducts in the liver. The presence of AMA is highly specific for PBC, and ALP is typically elevated due to cholestasis. Harrison notes that PBC often presents with fatigue and pruritus and is associated with other autoimmune conditions like Sjögren's syndrome (dry eyes).
B) Autoimmune hepatitis: Autoimmune hepatitis typically presents with elevated aminotransferases (ALT/AST) and is associated with autoantibodies such as ANA or SMA, not AMA. It does not cause isolated cholestasis.
C) Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC): PSC is another cholestatic liver disease, but it is associated with inflammatory bowel disease (usually ulcerative colitis) and typically shows beading of the bile ducts on imaging. AMA is negative in PSC.
D) Hepatitis C: Chronic hepatitis C can cause liver damage, but it usually presents with elevated ALT/AST rather than isolated ALP elevation, and it is not associated with AMA positivity.
১,২৯০.
Most common form of Hodgkin Lymphoma is-
  1. Mixed cellularity
  2. Nodular sclerosing
  3. Lymphocyte rich
  4. Lymphocyte depleted
১,২৯১.
Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for all of the following except
  1. ক) Trachoma
  2. খ) Cervicitis
  3. গ) Proctitis
  4. ঘ) Psittacosis
১,২৯২.
Which of the following is the preferred investigation for vulvular heat disease?
  1. ক) Echocardiography
  2. খ) ECG
  3. গ) ETT
  4. ঘ) CT chest
ব্যাখ্যা
Explanation: Echocardiography is a pivotal investigation for vulvular heat disease
১,২৯৩.
Passive transfer of maternal antibodies occur in
  1. SLE
  2. Graves' disease
  3. myasthenia gravis
  4. All
ব্যাখ্যা
Passive transfer of maternal antibodies: can mediate autoimmune disease in the fetus and newborn, including SLE, Graves' disease, and myasthenia gravis.
১,২৯৪.
Facial expression in hyperthyroidism
  1. ক) Poverty of expression
  2. খ) Startled expression
  3. গ) Apathy
  4. ঘ) Agitated
১,২৯৫.
In CRPS For a positive diagnosis, the patient should report at least --------- symptom in at least ---------- out of the four categories
  1. 1,3
  2. 2,4
  3. 1,2
  4. 2,3
১,২৯৬.
Pathological grief is feature is a feature of
  1. Post Partum Blue
  2. OCD
  3. Adjustment disorder
  4. Anxiety disorder
১,২৯৭.
Which of the following is a common cause of pre-renal AKI?
  1. Acute tubular necrosis
  2. Rhabdomyolysis
  3. Glomerulonephritis
  4. Hypovolaemia
ব্যাখ্যা
Hypovolaemia (e.g., from dehydration or haemorrhage) is a classic cause of pre-renal AKI due to reduced renal perfusion. The others are intrinsic or post-renal causes.
১,২৯৮.
Antidote for Isoniazid toxicity is-
  1. Vitamin K
  2. Methionine
  3. Pyridoxine
  4. Naloxone
১,২৯৯.
Koch’s postulates excludes the following
  1. The same organism must be present in every case of the disease
  2. The organism must be isolated from the healthy host and grown in pure culture
  3. The isolate must cause the disease, when inoculated into a healthy, susceptible animal.
  4. The organism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased animal.
১,৩০০.
Drug of 1st choice in prophylaxis of Gout
  1. ক) Colchicine
  2. খ) NSAIDs
  3. গ) Steroids
  4. ঘ) Allopurinol
ব্যাখ্যা
Ref: Davidson 23rd; P-1015